An administrator does not want to report the login events of service accounts to FortiGate.
Which setting on the collector agent is required to achieve this?

A. Add user accounts to the Ignore User List.

B. Add user accounts to Active Directory (AD).

C. Add user accounts to the FortiGate group filter.

D. Add the support of NTLM authentication.

Which two features of IPsec IKEv1 authentication are supported by FortiGate? (Choose two.)

A. Extended authentication (XAuth) for faster authentication because fewer packets are exchanged

B. Extended authentication (XAuth) to request the remote peer to provide a username and password

C. Nofficertificate is required on the remote peer when you set the certificate signature as the authentication method

D. Pre-shared key and certificate signature as authentication methods

Which three methods are used by the collector agent for AD polling? (Choose three.)

A. FortiGate polling

B. FSSO REST API

C. WMI

D. NetAPI

E. WinSecLog

Refer to the exhibit showing a debug flow output.

What two conclusions can you make from the debug flow output? (Choose two.)

A. The debug flow is for ICMP traffic.

B. The default route is required to receive a reply.

C. Anew traffic session was created.

D. A firewall policy allowed the connection.

Refer to the exhibits.
An administrator creates a new address object on the root FortiGate (Local-FortiGate) in the security fabric. After synchronization, this object is not available on the downstream FortiGate (ISFW).


What must the administrator do to synchronize the address object?

A. Change the csf setting on ISFW (downstream) to set configuration-sync local.

B. Change the csf setting on ISFW (downstream) to set authorization-request-type certificate.

C. Change the csf setting on both devices to set downstream-access enable.

D. Change the csf setting on Local-FortiGate (root) to set fabric-object-uni cation default.

If Internet Service is already selected as Destination in a firewall policy, which other configuration object can be selected for the Destination field of a firewall policy?

A. IP address

B. No other object can be added

C. FQDN address

D. User or User Group

What are two features of collector agent advanced mode? (Choose two.)

A. In advanced mode, FortiGate can be configured as an LDAP client and group lters can be configured on FortiGate.

B. In advanced mode, security profiles can be applied only to user groups, not individual users.

C. Advanced mode uses the Windows convention–NetBios: DomainUsername.

D. Advanced mode supports nested or inherited groups.

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the raw log, what can you conclude from the output? (Choose two.)

A. traffic is blocked because Action is set to DENY in the firewall policy.

B. traffic belongs to the root VDOM.

C. This is a security log.

D. Log severity is set to error on FortiGate.

Which statement about video filtering on FortiGate is true?

A. Video filtering FortiGuard categories are based on web filter FortiGuard categories.

B. It does not require a separate FortiGuard license.

C. Full SSL inspection is not required.

D. Otis available only on a proxy-based firewall policy.

An administrator needs to increase network bandwidth and provide redundancy.
Which interface type must the administrator select to bind multiple FortiGate interfaces?

A. Redundant interface

B. Software switch interface

C. VLAN interface

D. Aggregate interface

FortiGate is integrated with FortiAnalyzer and FortiManager.
When a firewall policy is created, which attribute is added to the policy to improve functionality and to support recording logs to FortiAnalyzer or FortiManager?

A. Policy ID

B. Log ID

C. Sequence ID

D. Universally Unique identifier

Refer to the exhibits.
The exhibits show a firewall policy (Exhibit A) and an antivirus profile (Exhibit B).


Why is the user unable to receive a block replacement message when downloading an infected file for the first time?

A. The firewall policy performs a full content inspection on the file.

B. The intrusion prevention security profile must be enabled when using flow-based inspection mode.

C. Flow-based inspection is used, which resets the last packet to the user.

D. The volume of traffic being inspected is too high for this model of FortiGate.

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the administrator profile settings, what permissions must the administrator set to run the diagnose firewall auth list CLI command on FortiGate?

A. CLI diagnostics commands permission

B. Read/Write permission for Log & Report

C. Read/Write permission for Firewall

D. Custom permission for Network

Refer to the exhibit.
Examine the intrusion prevention system (IPS) diagnostic command shown in the exhibit.

If option 5 is used with the IPS diagnostic command and the outcome is a decrease in the CPU usage, what is the correct conclusion?

A. The IPS engine is unable to prevent an intrusion attack.

B. The IPS engine is inspecting a high volume of traffic.

C. The IPS engine will continue to run in a normal state.

D. The IPS engine is blocking all traffic.

Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is troubleshooting an IPsec tunnel between two FortiGate devices. The administrator has determined that phase 1 failed to come up. The administrator has also re-entered the pre-shared key on both FortiGate devices to make sure they match.

Based on the phase 1 configuration and the diagram shown in the exhibit, which two configuration changes can the administrator make to bring phase 1 up? (Choose two.)

A. On both FortiGate devices, set Dead Peer Detection to On Demand.

B. On HQ-FortiGate, set IKE mode to Main (ID protection).

C. On HO-FortiGate, disable Di e-Helman group 2.

D. On Remote-FortiGate, set port2 as Interface.

What are two characteristics of FortiGate HA cluster virtual IP addresses? (Choose two.)

A. Virtual IP addresses are used to distinguish between cluster members.

B. Heartbeat interfaces have virtual IP addresses that are manually assigned.

C. The primary device in the cluster is always assigned IP address 169.254.0.1.

D. A change in the virtual IP address happens when a FortiGate device joins or leaves the cluster.

A network administrator is configuring a new IPsec VPN tunnel on FortiGate. The remote peer IP address is dynamic. In addition, the remote peer does not support a dynamic DNS update service.
Which type of remote gateway should the administrator configure on FortiGate for the new IPsec VPN tunnel to work?

A. Pre-shared key

B. Dialup user

C. Dynamic DNS

D. Static IP address

Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit A shows a network diagram. Exhibit B shows the central SNAT policy and IP pool configuration.
The WAN (port1) interface has the IP address 10.200.1.1/24.
The LAN (port3) interface has the IP address 10.0.1.254/24.
A firewall policy is configured to allow all destinations from LAN (port3) to WAN (port1).
Central NAT is enabled, so NAT settings from matching central SNAT policies will be applied.


Which IP address will be used to source NAT (SNAT) the traffic, if the user on Local-Client (10.0.1.10) pings the IP address of Remote-FortiGate (10.200.3.1)?

A. 10.200.1.99

B. 10.200.1.1

C. 10.200.1.49

D. 10.200.1.149

What are two scanning techniques supported by FortiGate? (Choose two.)

A. Machine learning scan

B. Antivirus scan

C. Ransomware scan

D. Trojan scan

Which statement is correct regarding the security fabric?

A. FortiManager is one of the required member devices.

B. FortiGate devices must be operating in NAT mode.

C. A minimum of two Fortinet devices is required.

D. FortiGate Cloud cannot be used for logging purposes.

Refer to the exhibits.
The exhibits contain a network interface configuration, firewall policies, and a CLI console configuration.


How will the FortiGate device handle user authentication for traffic that arrives on the LAN interface?

A. All users will be prompted for authentication; users from the HR group can authenticate successfully with the correct credentials.

B. If there is a fall-through policy in place, users will not be prompted for authentication.

C. All users will be prompted for authentication; users from the sales group can authenticate successfully with the correct credentials.

D. Authentication is enforced only at a policy level; all users will be prompted for authentication.

Which statement is correct regarding the use of application control for inspecting web applications?

A. Application control can identify child and parent applications, and perform different actions on them.

B. Application control signatures are organized in a nonhierarchical structure.

C. Application control does not require SSL inspection to identify web applications.

D. Application control does not display a replacement message for a blocked web application.

Refer to the exhibit, which contains a static route configuration.
An administrator created a static route for Amazon Web Services.

Which CLI command must the administrator use to view the route?

A. get router info routing-table database

B. diagnose firewall route list

C. get internet-service route list

D. get router info routing-table all

Refer to the exhibits.
The exhibits contain a network diagram, and virtual IP, IP pool, and firewall policies configuration information.
The WAN (port1) interface has the IP address 10.200.1.1/24.
The LAN (port3) interface has the IP address 10.0.1.254/24.
The first firewall policy has NAT enabled using IP pool.
The second firewall policy is configured with a VIP as the destination address.


Which IP address will be used to source NAT (SNAT) the internet traffic coming from a workstation with the IP address 10.0.1.10?

A. 10.200.1.1

B. 10.0.1.254

C. 10.200.1.10

D. 10.200.1.100

An employee needs to connect to the office through a high-latency internet connection.
Which SSL VPN setting should the administrator adjust to prevent SSL VPN negotiation failure?

A. idle-timeout

B. login-timeout

C. udp-idle-timer

D. session-ttl

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the routing database shown in the exhibit, which two conclusions can you make about the routes? (Choose two.)

A. The port3 default route has the lowest metric.

B. The port1 and port2 default routes are active in the routing table.

C. The ports default route has the highest distance.

D. There will be eight routes active in the routing table.

A network administrator has enabled full SSL inspection and web filtering on FortiGate. When visiting any HTTPS websites, the browser reports certificate warning errors. When visiting HTTP websites, the browser does not report errors.
What is the reason for the certificate warning errors?

A. The matching firewall policy is set to proxy inspection mode.

B. The certificate used by FortiGate for SSL inspection does not contain the required certificate extensions.

C. The full SSL inspection feature does not have a valid license.

D. The browser does not trust the certificate used by FortiGate for SSL inspection.

Which statement describes a characteristic of automation stitches?

A. They can have one or more triggers.

B. They can be run only on devices in the Security Fabric.

C. They can run multiple actions simultaneously.

D. They can be created on any device in the fabric.

What is a reason for triggering IPS fail open?

A. The IPS socket buffer is full and the IPS engine cannot process additional packets.

B. The IPS engine cannot decode a packet.

C. The IPS engine is upgraded.

D. The administrator enabled NTurbo acceleration.

What are two features of the NGFW policy-based mode? (Choose two.)

A. NGFW policy-based mode supports creating applications and web filtering categories directly in a firewall policy.

B. NGFW policy-based mode does not require the use of central source NAT policy.

C. NGFW policy-based mode policies support only flow inspection.

D. NGFW policy-based mode can only be applied globally and not on individual VDOMs.

Which two settings are required for SSL VPN to function between two FortiGate devices? (Choose two.)

A. The client FortiGate requires a manually added route to remote subnets.

B. The client FortiGate requires a client certificate signed by the CA on the server FortiGate.

C. The server FortiGate requires a CA certificate to verify the client FortiGate certificate.

D. The client FortiGate requires the SSL VPN tunnel interface type to connect SSL VPN.

Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator is running a sniffer command as shown in the exhibit.

Which three pieces of information are included in the sniffer output? (Choose three.)

A. Packet payload

B. Application header

C. IP header

D. Ethernet header

E. Interface name

Which two attributes are required on a certificate so it can be used as a CA certificate on SSL inspection? (Choose two.)

A. The keyUsage extension must be set to keyCertSign.

B. The CA extension must be set to TRU

C. The issuer must be a public C

D. The common name on the subject field must use a wildcard name.

Refer to the exhibits.
The exhibits show the firewall policies and the objects used in the firewall policies. The administrator is using the Policy Lookup feature and has entered the search criteria shown in the exhibit.


Which policy will be highlighted, based on the input criteria?

A. Policy with ID 4.

B. Policy with ID 5.

C. Policies with ID 2 and 3.

D. Policy with ID 4.

FortiGate is operating in NAT mode and is configured with two virtual LAN (VLAN) subinterfaces added to the same physical interface. In this scenario, what are two requirements for the VLAN ID? (Choose two.)

E. The two VLAN subinterfaces can have the same VLAN ID, only if they have IP addresses in the same subnet.

What are two functions of ZTNA? (Choose two.)

A. ZTNA manages access through the client only.

B. ZTNA manages access for remote users only.

C. ZTNA provides a security posture check.

D. ZTNA provides role-based access.

What is the effect of enabling auto-negotiate on the phase 2 configuration of an IPsec tunnel?

A. FortiGate automatically negotiates different encryption and authentication algorithms with the remote peer.

B. FortiGate automatically brings up the IPsec tunnel and keeps it up, regardless of activity on the IPsec tunnel.

C. FortiGate automatically negotiates different local and remote addresses with the remote peer.

D. FortiGate automatically negotiates a new security association after the existing security association expires.

Which two statements explain antivirus scanning modes? (Choose two.)

A. In flow-based inspection mode, files bigger than the buffer size are scanned.

B. In proxy-based inspection mode, files bigger than the buffer size are scanned.

C. In flow-based inspection mode, FortiGate buffers the file, but also simultaneously transmits it to the client.

D. In proxy-based inspection mode, antivirus scanning buffers the whole file for scanning, before sending it to the client.

An administrator has configured a strict RPF check on FortiGate.
How does strict RPF check work?

A. Strict RPF allows packets back to sources with all active routes.

B. Strict RPF checks the best route back to the source using the incoming interface.

C. Strict RPF checks only for the existence of at least one active route back to the source using the incoming interface.

D. Strict RPF check is run on the first sent and reply packet of any new session.

An administrator wants to configure timeouts for users. Regardless of the user's behavior, the timer should start as soon as the user authenticates and expire after the configured value.
Which timeout option should the administrator configure on FortiGate?

A. new-session

B. idle-timeout

C. hard-timeout

D. soft-timeout

E. auth-on-demand

Which statement correctly describes NetAPI polling mode for the FSSO collector agent?

A. The collector agent must search Windows application event logs.

B. The NetSessionEnum function is used to track user logouts.

C. NetAPI polling can increase bandwidth usage in large networks.

D. The collector agent uses a Windows API to query DCs for user logins.

The IPS engine is used by which three security features? (Choose three.)

A. Antivirus in flow-based inspection

B. Web filter in flow-based inspection

C. Application control

D. DNS filter

E. Web application firewall

Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit A shows system performance output. Exhibit B shows a FortiGate configured with the default configuration of high memory usage thresholds.


Based on the system performance output, which two results are correct? (Choose two.)

A. FortiGate will start sending all files to FortiSandbox for inspection.

B. FortiGate has entered conserve mode.

C. Administrators cannot change the configuration.

D. Administrators can access FortiGate only through the console port.

Refer to exhibit.
An administrator configured the web filtering profile shown in the exhibit to block access to all social networking sites except Twitter. However, when users try to access twitter.com, they are redirected to a FortiGuard web filtering block page.

Based on the exhibit, which configuration change can the administrator make to allow Twitter while blocking all other social networking sites?

A. On the FortiGuard Category Based Filter configuration, set Action to Warning for Social Networking.

B. On the Static URL Filter configuration, set Type to Simple.

C. On the Static URL Filter configuration, set Action to Exempt.

D. On the Static URL Filter configuration, set Action to Monitor.

Refer to the exhibit.
Review the intrusion prevention system (IPS) profile signature settings shown in the exhibit.

What do you conclude when adding the FTP.Login.Failed signature to the IPS sensor profile?

A. traffic matching the signature will be allowed and logged.

B. The signature setting includes a group of other signatures.

C. traffic matching the signature will be silently dropped and logged.

D. The signature setting uses a custom rating threshold.

The HTTP inspection process in web filtering follows a specific order when multiple features are enabled in the web filter profile.
Which order must FortiGate use when the web filter profile has features such as safe search enabled?

A. DNS-based web filter and proxy-based web filter

B. Static URL filter, FortiGuard category filter, and advanced lters

C. FortiGuard category filter and rating filter

D. Static domain filter, SSL inspection filter, and external connectors lters

By default, FortiGate is configured to use HTTPS when performing live web filtering with FortiGuard servers. Which CLI command causes FortiGate to use an unreliable protocol to communicate with FortiGuard servers for live web filtering?

A. set web filter-force-off disable

B. set web filter-cache disable

C. set protocol tcp

D. set fortiguard-anycast disable

An administrator wants to configure dead peer detection (DPD) on IPsec VPN for detecting dead tunnels. The requirement is that FortiGate sends DPD probes only when no traffic is observed in the tunnel.
Which DPD mode on FortiGate will meet this requirement?

A. On Demand

B. On Idle

C. Disabled

D. Enabled

An administrator configures FortiGuard servers as DNS servers on FortiGate using default settings.
What is true about the DNS connection to a FortiGuard server?

A. It uses UDP 8888.

B. It uses UDP 53.

C. It uses DNS over HTTPS.

D. It uses DNS over TLS.

Refer to the exhibits.
Exhibit A shows a network diagram. Exhibit B shows the firewall policy configuration and a VIP object configuration.
The WAN (port1) interface has the IP address 10.200.1.1/24.
The LAN (port3) interface has the IP address 10.0.1.254/24.


If the host 10.200.3.1 sends a TCP SYN packet on port 10443 to 10.200.1.10, what will the source address, destination address, and destination port of the packet be, after FortiGate forwards the packet to the destination?

A. 10.0.1.254, 10.0.1.10, and 443, respectively

B. 10.0.1.254, 10.200.1.10, and 443, respectively

C. 10.200.3.1, 10.0.1.10, and 443, respectively

D. 10.0.1.254, 10.0.1.10, and 10443, respectively

What are two functions of the ZTNA rule? (Choose two.)

A. It redirects the client request to the access proxy.

B. It applies security profiles to protect traffic.

C. It defines the access proxy.

D. It enforces access control.