Practice Test Free
  • QUESTIONS
  • COURSES
    • CCNA
    • Cisco Enterprise Core
    • VMware vSphere: Install, Configure, Manage
  • CERTIFICATES
No Result
View All Result
  • Login
  • Register
Quesions Library
  • Cisco
    • 200-301
    • 200-901
      • Multiple Choice
      • Drag Drop
    • 350-401
      • Multiple Choice
      • Drag Drop
    • 350-701
    • 300-410
      • Multiple Choice
      • Drag Drop
    • 300-415
      • Multiple Choice
      • Drag Drop
    • 300-425
    • Others
  • AWS
    • CLF-C02
    • SAA-C03
    • SAP-C02
    • ANS-C01
    • Others
  • Microsoft
    • AZ-104
    • AZ-204
    • AZ-305
    • AZ-900
    • AI-900
    • SC-900
    • Others
  • CompTIA
    • SY0-601
    • N10-008
    • 220-1101
    • 220-1102
    • Others
  • Google
    • Associate Cloud Engineer
    • Professional Cloud Architect
    • Professional Cloud DevOps Engineer
    • Others
  • ISACA
    • CISM
    • CRIS
    • Others
  • LPI
    • 101-500
    • 102-500
    • 201-450
    • 202-450
  • Fortinet
    • NSE4_FGT-7.2
  • VMware
  • >>
    • Juniper
    • EC-Council
      • 312-50v12
    • ISC
      • CISSP
    • PMI
      • PMP
    • Palo Alto Networks
    • RedHat
    • Oracle
    • GIAC
    • F5
    • ITILF
    • Salesforce
Contribute
Practice Test Free
  • QUESTIONS
  • COURSES
    • CCNA
    • Cisco Enterprise Core
    • VMware vSphere: Install, Configure, Manage
  • CERTIFICATES
No Result
View All Result
Practice Test Free
No Result
View All Result
Home Practice Exam Free

CSSLP Practice Exam Free

Table of Contents

Toggle
  • CSSLP Practice Exam Free – 50 Questions to Simulate the Real Exam
  • Free Access Full CSSLP Practice Exam Free

CSSLP Practice Exam Free – 50 Questions to Simulate the Real Exam

Are you getting ready for the CSSLP certification? Take your preparation to the next level with our CSSLP Practice Exam Free – a carefully designed set of 50 realistic exam-style questions to help you evaluate your knowledge and boost your confidence.

Using a CSSLP practice exam free is one of the best ways to:

  • Experience the format and difficulty of the real exam
  • Identify your strengths and focus on weak areas
  • Improve your test-taking speed and accuracy

Below, you will find 50 realistic CSSLP practice exam free questions covering key exam topics. Each question reflects the structure and challenge of the actual exam.

Question 1

Which of the following programming languages are compiled into machine code and directly executed by the CPU of a computer system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. C

B. Microosft.NET

C. Java EE

D. C++

 


Suggested Answer: computer system. Answer: C and B are incorrect. Java EE and Microsoft.Net are compiled into an intermediate code format.

Community Answer: AD

C and C++ programming languages are unmanaged code. Unmanaged code is compiled into machine code and directly executed by the CPU of a

Question 2

You work as a Security Manager for Tech Perfect Inc. In the organization, Syslog is used for computer system management and security auditing, as well as for generalized informational, analysis, and debugging messages. You want to prevent a denial of service (DoS) for the Syslog server and the loss of Syslog messages from other sources. What will you do to accomplish the task?

A. Use a different message format other than Syslog in order to accept data.

B. Enable the storage of log entries in both traditional Syslog files and a database.

C. Limit the number of Syslog messages or TCP connections from a specific source for a certain time period.

D. Encrypt rotated log files automatically using third-party or OS mechanisms.

 


Suggested Answer: This will prevent a denial of service (DoS) for the Syslog server and the loss of Syslog messages from other sources. Answer: D is incorrect. You can encrypt

Community Answer: C

In order to accomplish the task, you should limit the number of Syslog messages or TCP connections from a specific source for a certain time period. entries in both traditional Syslog files and a database for creating a database storage for logs.

Question 3

Numerous information security standards promote good security practices and define frameworks or systems to structure the analysis and design for managing information security controls. Which of the following are the international information security standards? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.

A. AU audit and accountability

B. Human resources security

C. Organization of information security

D. Risk assessment and treatment

 


Suggested Answer: critical processes and systems Compliance: Ensuring conformance with information security policies, standards, laws, and regulations Answer: A is incorrect. AU

Community Answer: BCD

Following are the various international information security standards:
Risk assessment and treatment: Analysis of the organization’s information security risks Security policy: Management direction Organization of information security: Governance of information security Asset management: Inventory and classification of information assets Human resources security: Security aspects for employees joining, moving, and leaving an organization Physical and environmental security: Protection of the computer facilities Communications and operations management: Management of technical security controls in systems and networks Access control: Restriction of access rights to networks, systems, applications, functions, and data Information systems acquisition, development and maintenance: Building security into applications Information security incident management:
Anticipating and responding appropriately to information security breaches Business continuity management: Protecting, maintaining, and recovering business- audit and accountability is a U.S. Federal Government information security standard.

Question 4

Which of the following secure coding principles and practices defines the appearance of code listing so that a code reviewer and maintainer who have not written that code can easily understand it?

A. Make code forward and backward traceable

B. Review code during and after coding

C. Use a consistent coding style

D. Keep code simple and small

 


Suggested Answer: same guidelines. Answer: D is incorrect. Keep code simple and small defines that it is easy to verify the software security when a programmer uses small and

Community Answer: C

Use a consistent coding style is one of the principles and practices that contribute to defensive coding. This principle defines the appearance of code listing so that a code reviewer and maintainer who have not written that code can easily understand it. For this purpose, all programmers of a team must follow the defines that code must be examined in order to identify coding errors in modules.

Question 5

Which of the following strategies is used to minimize the effects of a disruptive event on a company, and is created to prevent interruptions to normal business activity?

A. Continuity of Operations Plan

B. Contingency Plan

C. Disaster Recovery Plan

D. Business Continuity Plan

 


Suggested Answer: predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan. Answer: B is incorrect. A contingency plan is a

Community Answer: D

BCP is a strategy to minimize the consequence of the instability and to allow for the continuation of business processes. The goal of BCP is to minimize the effects of a disruptive event on a company, and is formed to avoid interruptions to normal business activity. Business Continuity Planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could happen. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and “triggers” for initiating planned actions. They are required to help recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for resumption of applications, data, hardware, communications (such as networking), and other IT infrastructure. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel, facilities, crisis communication, and reputation protection, and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for IT-related infrastructure government, providing survival of federal government operations in the case of catastrophic events. It provides procedures and capabilities to sustain an organization’s essential. COOP is the procedure documented to ensure persistent critical operations throughout any period where normal operations are unattainable.

Question 6

Which of the following ensures that a party to a dispute cannot deny the authenticity of their signature on a document or the sending of a message that they originated?

A. Confidentiality

B. OS fingerprinting

C. Reconnaissance

D. Non-repudiation

 


Suggested Answer: including television and radio, by far the most common application is in the verification and trust of signatures. Answer: A is incorrect. Confidentiality is a

Community Answer: D

Non-repudiation is a term that refers to the ability to ensure that a party to a dispute cannot deny the authenticity of their signature on a document or the sending of a message that they originated. Non-repudiation is the concept of ensuring that a party in a dispute cannot refuse to acknowledge, or refute the validity of a statement or contract. As a service, it provides proof of the integrity and origin of data. Although this concept can be applied to any transmission, mechanism that ensures that only the intended and authorized recipients are able to read data. The data is so encrypted that even if an unauthorized user gets the organization, employees, network, and systems before an attack is performed efficiently. It is the first step in the process of intrusion and involves unauthorized discovery and mapping of systems, services, or vulnerabilities. These discovery and mapping techniques are commonly known as scanning and enumeration.
Common tools, commands, and utilities used for scanning and enumeration include ping, telnet, nslookup, rpcinfo, File Explorer, finger, etc. Reconnaissance activities take place before performing a malicious attack. These activities are used to increase the probability of successful operation against the target, and to external network interface of a computer to determine the computer’s operating system. It is one of the primary steps taken by hackers in preparing an attack.

Question 7

In which of the following DIACAP phases is residual risk analyzed?

A. Phase 1

B. Phase 5

C. Phase 2

D. Phase 4

E. Phase 3

 


Suggested Answer: subordinate tasks are as follows: Analyze residual risk. Issue certification determination. Make accreditation decision. Answer: A is incorrect. Phase 1 is known as

Community Answer: D

The Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is a process defined by the United States
Department of Defense (DoD) for managing risk. The Certification Determination and Accreditation phase is the third phase in the DIACAP process. Its to the disposition of the system data and objects.

Question 8

There are seven risks responses that a project manager can choose from. Which risk response is appropriate for both positive and negative risk events?

A. Acceptance

B. Transference

C. Sharing

D. Mitigation

 


Suggested Answer: contingency reserves to deal with risks, in case they occur. Acceptance is the only response for both threats and opportunities. Answer: C is incorrect. Sharing is a

Community Answer: A

Only acceptance is appropriate for both positive and negative risk events. Often sharing is used for low probability and low impact risk events regardless of the positive or negative effects the risk event may bring the project. Acceptance response is a part of Risk Response planning process. Acceptance response delineates that the project plan will not be changed to deal with the risk. Management may develop a contingency plan if the risk does occur.
Acceptance response to a risk event is a strategy that can be used for risks that pose either threats or opportunities. Acceptance response can be of two types:
Passive acceptance: It is a strategy in which no plans are made to try or avoid or mitigate the risk. Active acceptance: Such responses include developing seeks to lower the probability and/or impact of a risk event.

Question 9

Billy is the project manager of the HAR Project and is in month six of the project. The project is scheduled to last for 18 months. Management asks Billy how often the project team is participating in risk reassessment in this project. What should Billy tell management if he's following the best practices for risk management?

A. Project risk management happens at every milestone.

B. Project risk management has been concluded with the project planning.

C. Project risk management is scheduled for every month in the 18-month project.

D. At every status meeting the project team project risk management is an agenda item.

 


Suggested Answer: Risk management is an ongoing project activity. It should be an agenda item at every project status meeting. Answer: A is incorrect. Milestones are good times to

Community Answer: D

 

Question 10

Which of the following elements of BCP process includes the areas of plan implementation, plan testing, and ongoing plan maintenance, and also involves defining and documenting the continuity strategy?

A. Business continuity plan development

B. Business impact assessment

C. Scope and plan initiation

D. Plan approval and implementation

 


Suggested Answer: phase also consists of defining and documenting the continuity strategy. Answer: C is incorrect. The scope and plan initiation process in BCP symbolizes the

Community Answer: D

The business continuity plan development refers to the utilization of the information collected in the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) for the creation of the recovery strategy plan to support the critical business functions. The information gathered from the BIA is mapped out to make a strategy for creating a continuity plan. The business continuity plan development process includes the areas of plan implementation, plan testing, and ongoing plan maintenance. This beginning of the BCP process. It emphasizes on creating the scope and the additional elements required to define the parameters of the plan. The scope and plan initiation phase embodies a check of the company’s operations and support services. The scope activities include creating a detailed account of the work required, used to facilitate business units to understand the impact of a disruptive event. This phase includes the execution of a vulnerability assessment. This process makes out the mission-critical areas and business processes that are important for the survival of business. It is similar to the risk assessment process. The function of a business impact assessment process is to create a document, which is used to help and understand what impact a disruptive event would have on senior management signoff, and implementing a maintenance procedure for updating the plan as required.

Question 11

What are the security advantages of virtualization, as described in the NIST Information Security and Privacy Advisory Board (ISPAB) paper "Perspectives on
Cloud Computing and Standards"? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. It increases capabilities for fault tolerant computing.

B. It adds a layer of security for defense-in-depth.

C. It decreases exposure of weak software.

D. It decreases configuration effort.

 


Suggested Answer: fault tolerant computing using rollback and snapshot features. Answer: D is incorrect. Virtualization increases configuration effort because of complexity of the

Community Answer: BCD

The security advantages of virtualization are as follows: It adds a layer of security for defense-in-depth. It provides strong encapsulation of errors. It increases intrusion detection through introspection. It decreases exposure of weak software. It increases the flexibility for discovery. It increases capabilities for virtualization layer and composite system.

Question 12

The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in Phase 3. What are the process activities of this phase? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Security operations

B. Maintenance of the SSAA

C. Compliance validation

D. Change management

E. System operations

F. Continue to review and refine the SSAA

 


Suggested Answer: phase are as follows: System operations Security operations Maintenance of the SSAA Change management Compliance validation Answer: F is incorrect. It is a

Community Answer: BCDE

The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in the Phase 3. The goal of this phase is to continue to operate and manage the system and to ensure that it will maintain an acceptable level of residual risk. The process activities of this
Phase 3 activity.

Question 13

Which of the following types of obfuscation transformation increases the difficulty for a de-obfuscation tool so that it cannot extract the true application from the obfuscated version?

A. Preventive transformation

B. Data obfuscation

C. Control obfuscation

D. Layout obfuscation

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

Preventive transformation increases the difficulty for a de-obfuscation tool so that it cannot extract the true application from the obfuscated version.

Question 14

The DoD 8500 policy series represents the Department's information assurance strategy. Which of the following objectives are defined by the DoD 8500 series?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Defending systems

B. Providing IA Certification and Accreditation

C. Providing command and control and situational awareness

D. Protecting information

 


Suggested Answer: ACD

The various objectives of the DoD 8500 series are as follows: Protecting information Defending systems Providing command and control and situational awareness Making sure that the information assurance is integrated into processes Increasing security awareness throughout the DoD’s workforce

Question 15

Which of the following attacks causes software to fail and prevents the intended users from accessing software?

A. Enabling attack

B. Reconnaissance attack

C. Sabotage attack

D. Disclosure attack

 


Suggested Answer: to as a denial of service (DoS) or compromise of availability. Answer: B is incorrect. The reconnaissance attack enables an attacker to collect information about

Community Answer: C

A sabotage attack is an attack that causes software to fail. It also prevents the intended users from accessing software. A sabotage attack is referred attack delivers an easy path for other attacks.

Question 16

Which of the following models uses a directed graph to specify the rights that a subject can transfer to an object or that a subject can take from another subject?

A. Take-Grant Protection Model

B. Biba Integrity Model

C. Bell-LaPadula Model

D. Access Matrix

 


Suggested Answer: rules describing admissible changes of the graph. Answer: D is incorrect. The access matrix is a straightforward approach that provides access rights to subjects

Community Answer: A

The take-grant protection model is a formal model used in the field of computer security to establish or disprove the safety of a given computer system that follows specific rules. It shows that for specific systems the question of safety is decidable in linear time, which is in general undecidable. The model represents a system as directed graph, where vertices are either subjects or objects. The edges between them are labeled and the label indicates the rights that the source of the edge has over the destination. Two rights occur in every instance of the model: take and grant. They play a special role in the graph rewriting address additional integrity requirements.

Question 17

Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. Which of the following statements are true about Certification and Accreditation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system.

B. Accreditation is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system.

C. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system.

D. Certification is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system.

 


Suggested Answer: AC

Community Answer: AC

Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. The C&A process is used extensively in the U.S. Federal Government. Some
C&A processes include FISMA, NIACAP, DIACAP, and DCID 6/3. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system, made in support of security accreditation, to determine the extent to which the controls are implemented correctly, operating as intended, and producing the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the system. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system and to explicitly accept the risk to agency operations
(including mission, functions, image, or reputation), agency assets, or individuals, based on the implementation of an agreed-upon set of security controls.

Question 18

Which of the following coding practices are helpful in simplifying code? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Programmers should use multiple small and simple functions rather than a single complex function.

B. Software should avoid ambiguities and hidden assumptions, recursions, and GoTo statements.

C. Programmers should implement high-consequence functions in minimum required lines of code and follow proper coding standards.

D. Processes should have multiple entry and exit points.

 


Suggested Answer: inheritance, encapsulation, and polymorphism. Answer: D is incorrect. Processes should have only one entry point and the minimum number of exit points.

Community Answer: ABC

The various coding practices that are helpful in simplifying the code are as follows: Programmers should implement high-consequence functions in minimum required lines of code and follow the proper coding standards. Software should implement the functions that are defined in the software specification.
Software should avoid ambiguities and hidden assumptions, recursion, and GoTo statements. Programmers should use multiple small and simple functions rather than a complex function. The processes should have only one entry point and minimum exit points. Interdependencies should be minimum so that a process module or component can be disabled when it is not needed, or replaced when it is found insecure or a better alternative is available, without disturbing the software operations. Programmers should use object-oriented techniques to keep the code simple and small. Some of the object-oriented techniques are object

Question 19

John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. In order to do so, he performs the following steps of the pre-attack phase successfully: Information gathering Determination of network range Identification of active systems Location of open ports and applications Now, which of the following tasks should he perform next?

A. Perform OS fingerprinting on the We-are-secure network.

B. Map the network of We-are-secure Inc.

C. Install a backdoor to log in remotely on the We-are-secure server.

D. Fingerprint the services running on the we-are-secure network.

 


Suggested Answer: number of hops reveals the OS of the remote system. Answer: D and B are incorrect. John should perform OS fingerprinting first, after which it will be easy to

Community Answer: D

John will perform OS fingerprinting on the We-are-secure network. Fingerprinting is the easiest way to detect the Operating System (OS) of a remote system. OS detection is important because, after knowing the target system’s OS, it becomes easier to hack into the system. The comparison of data packets that are sent by the target system is done by fingerprinting. The analysis of data packets gives the attacker a hint as to which operating system is being used by the remote system. There are two types of fingerprinting techniques as follows: 1.Active fingerprinting 2.Passive fingerprinting In active fingerprinting ICMP messages are sent to the target system and the response message of the target system shows which OS is being used by the remote system. In passive fingerprinting the identify which services are running on the network since there are many services that run only on a specific operating system. After performing OS fingerprinting,
John install a backdoor.

Question 20

In which of the following processes are experienced personnel and software tools used to investigate, resolve, and handle process deviation, malformed data, infrastructure, or connectivity issues?

A. Risk Management

B. Exception management

C. Configuration Management

D. Change Management

 


Suggested Answer: data, infrastructure or connectivity issues. It increases the efficiency of business processes and contributes in the progress of business. Answer: C is incorrect.

Community Answer: B

Exception management is a process in which experienced personnel and software tools are used to investigate, resolve, and handle process deviation, malformed
Configuration Management (CM) is an Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) IT Service Management (ITSM) process. It tracks all of the individual
Configuration Items (CI) in an IT system, which may be as simple as a single server, or as complex as the entire IT department. In large organizations a control risks. It includes analyzing the value of assets to the business, identifying threats to those assets, and evaluating how vulnerable each asset is to those threats. Risk Management is part of Service Design and the owner of the Risk Management is the Risk Manager. Risks are addressed within several processes in
ITIL V3; however, there is no dedicated Risk Management process. ITIL V3 calls for “coordinated risk assessment exercises”, so at IT Process Maps we decided used for efficient handling of all changes. A change is “an event that results in a new status of one or more configuration items (CI’s)” approved by management, cost effective, enhances business process changes (fixes) – with a minimum risk to IT infrastructure. The main aims of Change Management are as follows:
Minimal disruption of services Reduction in back-out activities Economic utilization of resources involved in the change

Question 21

Which of the following is a set of exclusive rights granted by a state to an inventor or his assignee for a fixed period of time in exchange for the disclosure of an invention?

A. Copyright

B. Snooping

C. Utility model

D. Patent

 


Suggested Answer: invention. Answer: A is incorrect. A copyright is a form of intellectual property, which secures to its holder the exclusive right to produce copies of his or her works

Community Answer: D

A patent is a set of exclusive rights granted by a state to an inventor or his assignee for a fixed period of time in exchange for the disclosure of an of original expression, such as a literary work, movie, musical work or sound recording, painting, photograph, computer program, or industrial design, for a incorrect. Snooping is an activity of observing the content that appears on a computer monitor or watching what a user is typing. Snooping also occurs by using software programs to remotely monitor activity on a computer or network device. Hackers or attackers use snooping techniques and equipment such as keyloggers to monitor keystrokes, capture passwords and login information, and to intercept e-mail and other private communications. Sometimes, organizations intellectual property right to protect inventions.

Question 22

Which of the following is an example of over-the-air (OTA) provisioning in digital rights management?

A. Use of shared secrets to initiate or rebuild trust.

B. Use of software to meet the deployment goals.

C. Use of concealment to avoid tampering attacks.

D. Use of device properties for unique identification.

 


Suggested Answer: copyrighted software to a mobile device. For example, use of shared secrets to initiate or rebuild trust. Answer: D and C are incorrect. The use of device

Community Answer: A

Over- the- air provisioning is a mechanism to deploy MIDlet suites over a network. It is a method of distributing MIDlet suites. MIDlet suite providers install their MIDlet suites on Web servers and provide a hypertext link for downloading. A user can use this link to download the MIDlet suite either through the
Internet microbrowser or through WAP on his device. Over-the-air provisioning is required for end-to-end encryption or other security purposes in order to deliver properties for unique identification and the use of concealment to avoid tampering attacks are the security challenges in digital rights management (DRM).

Question 23

You are the project manager of the NNN project for your company. You and the project team are working together to plan the risk responses for the project. You feel that the team has successfully completed the risk response planning and now you must initiate what risk process it is. Which of the following risk processes is repeated after the plan risk responses to determine if the overall project risk has been satisfactorily decreased?

A. Quantitative risk analysis

B. Risk identification

C. Risk response implementation

D. Qualitative risk analysis

 


Suggested Answer: decreased. Answer: D is incorrect. Qualitative risk analysis is not repeated after the plan risk response process. Answer: B is incorrect. Risk identification is an

Community Answer: A

The quantitative risk analysis process is repeated after the plan risk responses to determine if the overall project risk has been satisfactorily

Question 24

Which of the following types of attacks is targeting a Web server with multiple compromised computers that are simultaneously sending hundreds of FIN packets with spoofed IP source IP addresses?

A. DDoS attack

B. Evasion attack

C. Insertion attack

D. Dictionary attack

 


Suggested Answer: thereby preventing communications between services. Disrupt services on a specific computer. Answer: D is incorrect. Dictionary attack is a type of password

Community Answer: A

A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack targets a Web server with multiple compromised computers that are simultaneously sending hundreds of FIN packets with spoofed IP source IP addresses. DDoS attack occurs when multiple compromised systems flood the bandwidth or resources of a targeted system, usually one or more Web servers. These systems are compromised by attackers using a variety of methods. It is an attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users. This type of attack can cause the following to occur: Saturate network resources. Disrupt connections between two computers, guessing attack. This type of attack uses a dictionary of common words to find out the password of a user. It can also use common words in either upper or lower attack, an IDS accepts a packet and assumes that the host computer will also accept it. But in reality, when a host system rejects the packet, the IDS accepts the evasion attack is one in which an IDS rejects a malicious packet but the host computer accepts it. Since an IDS has rejected it, it does not check the contents of the packet. Hence, using this technique, an attacker can exploit the host computer. In many cases, it is quite simple for an attacker to send such data packets that can easily perform evasion attacks on an IDSs.

Question 25

What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland
Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing Working Group?

A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring

B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing

C. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on

D. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Software Assurance Acquisition process defines the level of confidence that software is free from vulnerabilities. It is designed into the software or accidentally inserted at anytime during its lifecycle, and the software works in a planned manner. According to the U.S. Department of Defense and Department of
Homeland Security Acquisition and Outsourcing Working Group, the Software Assurance Acquisition process contains the following phases: 1.Planning
2.Contracting 3.Monitoring and acceptance 4.Follow-on

Question 26

Which of the following process areas does the SSE-CMM define in the 'Project and Organizational Practices' category? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Provide Ongoing Skills and Knowledge

B. Verify and Validate Security

C. Manage Project Risk

D. Improve Organization’s System Engineering Process

 


Suggested Answer: ACD

Community Answer: ACD

Project and Organizational Practices include the following process areas: PA12: Ensure Quality PA13: Manage Configuration PA14: Manage Project
Risk PA15: Monitor and Control Technical Effort PA16: Plan Technical Effort PA17: Define Organization’s System Engineering Process PA18: Improve
Organization’s System Engineering Process PA19: Manage Product Line Evolution PA20: Manage Systems Engineering Support Environment PA21: Provide
Ongoing Skills and Knowledge PA22: Coordinate with Suppliers

Question 27

Which of the following methods offers a number of modeling practices and disciplines that contribute to a successful service-oriented life cycle management and modeling?

A. Service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF)

B. Service-oriented architecture (SOA)

C. Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture (SABSA)

D. Service-oriented modeling and architecture (SOMA)

 


Suggested Answer: service development scheme. Answer: B is incorrect. The service-oriented architecture (SOA) is a flexible set of design principles used during the phases of

Community Answer: A

The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) has been proposed by author Michael Bell as a service-oriented modeling language for software development that employs disciplines and a holistic language to provide strategic solutions to enterprise problems. The service-oriented modeling framework
(SOMF) is a service-oriented development life cycle methodology. It offers a number of modeling practices and disciplines that contribute to a successful service- oriented life cycle management and modeling. The service-oriented modeling framework illustrates the major elements that identify the “what to do” aspects of a incorrect. SABSA (Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture) is a framework and methodology for Enterprise Security Architecture and Service
Management. It is a model and a methodology for developing risk-driven enterprise information security architectures and for delivering security infrastructure solutions that support critical business initiatives.

Question 28

Which of the following security controls works as the totality of protection mechanisms within a computer system, including hardware, firmware, and software, the combination of which is responsible for enforcing a security policy?

A. Common data security architecture (CDSA)

B. Application program interface (API)

C. Trusted computing base (TCB)

D. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)

 


Suggested Answer: malicious software or hardware. Maintaining the trusted computing base (TCB) is essential for security policy to be implemented successfully. Answer: D is

Community Answer: C

Trusted computing base (TCB) refers to hardware, software, controls, and processes that cause a computer system or network to be devoid of incorrect. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a standard-based protocol that provides the highest level of VPN security. IPSec can encrypt virtually everything above the networking layer. It is used for VPN connections that use the L2TP protocol. It secures both data and password. IPSec cannot be used with Point-to- framework. It deals with the communications and data security problems in the emerging Internet and intranet application space. It presents an infrastructure for
(API) is an interface implemented by a software program which enables it to interact with other software. It facilitates interaction between different software programs similar to the way the user interface facilitates interaction between humans and computers. An API is implemented by applications, libraries, and operating systems to determine their vocabularies and calling conventions, and is used to access their services. It may include specifications for routines, data structures, object classes, and protocols used to communicate between the consumer and the implementer of the API.

Question 29

Which of the following statements are true about declarative security? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. It is employed in a layer that relies outside of the software code or uses attributes of the code.

B. It applies the security policies on the software applications at their runtime.

C. In this security, authentication decisions are made based on the business logic.

D. In this security, the security decisions are based on explicit statements.

 


Suggested Answer: of the software code or uses attributes of the code. Answer: C is incorrect. In declarative security, authentication decisions are coarse-grained in nature from an

Community Answer: AB

Declarative security applies the security policies on the software applications at their runtime. In this type of security, the security decisions are based on explicit statements that confine security behavior. Declarative security applies security permissions that are required for the software application to access the local resources and provides role-based access control to an individual software component and software application. It is employed in a layer that relies outside operational or external security perspective.

Question 30

Which of the following methods does the Java Servlet Specification v2.4 define in the HttpServletRequest interface that control programmatic security? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. getCallerIdentity()

B. isUserInRole()

C. getUserPrincipal()

D. getRemoteUser()

 


Suggested Answer: the remote user name. The value of the getUserPrincipal() method returns null if no user is authenticated. Answer: A is incorrect. It is not defined in the

Community Answer: BCD

The various methods of the HttpServletRequest interface are as follows: getRemoteUser(): It returns the user name that is used for the client authentication. The value of the getRemoteUser() method returns null if no user is authenticated. isUserInRole(): It determines whether the remote user is granted a specified user role. The value of the isUserInRole() method returns true if the remote user is granted the specified user role; otherwise it returns false. getUserPrincipal(): It determines the principle name of the current user and returns the java.security.Principal object. The java.security.Principal object contains
HttpServletRequest interface. The getCallerIdentity() method is used to obtain the java.security.Identity of the caller.

Question 31

You work as a security manager for BlueWell Inc. You are going through the NIST SP 800-37 C&A methodology, which is based on four well defined phases. In which of the following phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A methodology does the security categorization occur?

A. Security Accreditation

B. Security Certification

C. Continuous Monitoring

D. Initiation

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

The various phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A are as follows: Phase 1: Initiation- This phase includes preparation, notification and resource identification. It performs the security plan analysis, update, and acceptance. Phase 2: Security Certification- The Security certification phase evaluates the controls and documentation. Phase 3: Security Accreditation- The security accreditation phase examines the residual risk for acceptability, and prepares the final security accreditation package. Phase 4: Continuous Monitoring-This phase monitors the configuration management and control, ongoing security control verification, and status reporting and documentation.

Question 32

Which of the following governance bodies directs and coordinates implementations of the information security program?

A. Chief Information Security Officer

B. Information Security Steering Committee

C. Business Unit Manager

D. Senior Management

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: B

Chief Information Security Officer directs and coordinates implementations of the information security program. The governance roles and responsibilities are mentioned below in the table:
<img src=”https://www.examtopics.com/assets/media/exam-media/02069/0004800001.png” alt=”Reference Image” />

Question 33

Which of the following is an example of penetration testing?

A. Implementing NIDS on a network

B. Implementing HIDS on a computer

C. Simulating an actual attack on a network

D. Configuring firewall to block unauthorized traffic

 


Suggested Answer: security audit. Answer: A, B, and D are incorrect. Implementing NIDS and HIDS and configuring firewall to block unauthorized traffic are not examples of

Community Answer: C

Penetration testing is a method of evaluating the security of a computer system or network by simulating an attack from a malicious source, known as a Black Hat Hacker, or Cracker. The process involves an active analysis of the system for any potential vulnerabilities that may result from poor or improper system configuration, known and/or unknown hardware or software flaws, or operational weaknesses in process or technical countermeasures. This analysis is carried out from the position of a potential attacker, and can involve active exploitation of security vulnerabilities. Any security issues that are found will be presented to the system owner together with an assessment of their impact and often with a proposal for mitigation or a technical solution. The intent of a penetration testing is to determine feasibility of an attack and the amount of business impact of a successful exploit, if discovered. It is a component of a full penetration testing.

Question 34

Which of the following are examples of the application programming interface (API)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. HTML

B. PHP

C. .NET

D. Perl

 


Suggested Answer: consistent with the operating environment. Answer: A is incorrect. HTML stands for Hypertext Markup Language. It is a set of markup symbols or codes used to

Community Answer: BCD

Perl, .NET, and PHP are examples of the application programming interface (API). API is a set of routines, protocols, and tools that users can use to work with a component, application, or operating system. It consists of one or more DLLs that provide specific functionality. API helps in reducing the development time of applications by reducing application code. Most operating environments, such as MS-Windows, provide an API so that programmers can write applications create Web pages and define formatting specifications. The markup tells the Web browser how to display the content of the Web page.

Question 35

Companies use some special marks to distinguish their products from those of other companies. These marks can include words, letters, numbers, drawings, etc.
Which of the following terms describes these special marks?

A. Business mark

B. Trademark

C. Sales mark

D. Product mark

 


Suggested Answer: its trademark to distinguish its products from others. It can use words, letters, numbers, drawings, pictures, and so on, in its trademark. Answer: D, A, and C are

Community Answer: B

A trademark is a mark that is used by a company to distinguish its products from those of other companies. There are various ways a company uses incorrect. There is no such mark as product mark, business mark, or sales mark.

Question 36

Which of the following techniques is used when a system performs the penetration testing with the objective of accessing unauthorized information residing inside a computer?

A. Biometrician

B. Van Eck Phreaking

C. Port scanning

D. Phreaking

 


Suggested Answer: that service and application. Answer: D is incorrect. Phreaking is a process used to crack the phone system. The main aim of phreaking is to avoid paying for long-

Community Answer: C

Port scanning identifies open doors to a computer. Hackers and crackers use this technique to obtain unauthorized information.
Port scanning is the first basic step to get the details of open ports on the target system. Port scanning is used to find a hackable server with a hole or vulnerability.
A port is a medium of communication between two computers. Every service on a host is identified by a unique 16-bit number called a port. A port scanner is a piece of software designed to search a network host for open ports. This is often used by administrators to check the security of their networks and by hackers to identify running services on a host with the view to compromising it. Port scanning is used to find the open ports, so that it is possible to search exploits related to distance calls. As telephone networks have become computerized, phreaking has become closely linked with computer hacking. This is sometimes called the H/P equipments are used to pick up the telecommunication signals or data within a computer device.

Question 37

Which of the following areas of information system, as separated by Information Assurance Framework, is a collection of local computing devices, regardless of physical location, that are interconnected via local area networks (LANs) and governed by a single security policy?

A. Local Computing Environments

B. Networks and Infrastructures

C. Supporting Infrastructures

D. Enclave Boundaries

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

The areas of information system, as separated by Information Assurance Framework, are as follows: Local Computing Environments: This area includes servers, client workstations, operating system, and applications. Enclave Boundaries: This area consists of collection of local computing devices, regardless of physical location, that are interconnected via local area networks (LANs) and governed by a single security policy. Networks and Infrastructures: This area provides the network connectivity between enclaves. It includes operational area networks (OANs), metropolitan area networks (MANs), and campus area networks (CANs). Supporting Infrastructures: This area provides security services for networks, client workstations, Web servers, operating systems, applications, files, and single-use infrastructure machines

Question 38

Which of the following organizations assists the President in overseeing the preparation of the federal budget and to supervise its administration in Executive
Branch agencies?

A. OMB

B. NIST

C. NSA/CSS

D. DCAA

 


Suggested Answer: Answer: D is incorrect. The DCAA has the aim to monitor contractor costs and perform contractor audits. Answer: C is incorrect. The National Security Agency/

Community Answer: A

The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) is a Cabinet-level office, and is the largest office within the Executive Office of the President (EOP) of the United States. The current OMB Director is Peter Orszag and was appointed by President Barack Obama. The OMB’s predominant mission is to assist the
President in overseeing the preparation of the federal budget and to supervise its administration in Executive Branch agencies. In helping to formulate the
President’s spending plans, the OMB evaluates the effectiveness of agency programs, policies, and procedures, assesses competing funding demands among agencies, and sets funding priorities. The OMB ensures that agency reports, rules, testimony, and proposed legislation are consistent with the President’s Budget and with Administration policies.
Central Security Service (NSA/CSS) is a crypto-logic intelligence agency of the United States government. It is administered as part of the United States
Department of Defense. NSA is responsible for the collection and analysis of foreign communications and foreign signals intelligence, which involves cryptanalysis. NSA is also responsible for protecting U.S. government communications and information systems from similar agencies elsewhere, which involves cryptography. NSA is a key component of the U.S. Intelligence Community, which is headed by the Director of National Intelligence. The Central Security Service is a co-located agency created to coordinate intelligence activities and co-operation between NSA and U.S. military cryptanalysis agencies. NSA’s work is limited
Technology (NIST), known between 1901 and 1988 as the National Bureau of Standards (NBS), is a measurement standards laboratory which is a non-regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce. The institute’s official mission is to promote U.S. innovation and industrial competitiveness by advancing measurement science, standards, and technology in ways that enhance economic security and improve quality of life.

Question 39

Which of the following types of attacks occurs when an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts?

A. Denial-of-service attack

B. Dictionary attack

C. Man-in-the-middle attack

D. Password guessing attack

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

When an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts, it is known as man-in-the-middle attack.

Question 40

Which of the following testing methods tests the system efficiency by systematically selecting the suitable and minimum set of tests that are required to effectively cover the affected changes?

A. Unit testing

B. Integration testing

C. Acceptance testing

D. Regression testing

 


Suggested Answer: changes. Answer: A is incorrect. Unit testing is a type of testing in which each independent unit of an application is tested separately. During unit testing, a

Community Answer: D

Regression testing focuses on finding defects after a major code change has occurred. Specifically, it seeks to uncover software regressions, or old bugs that have come back. Such regressions occur whenever software functionality that was previously working correctly stops working as intended. Typically, regressions occur as an unintended consequence of program changes, when the newly developed part of the software collides with the previously existing code.
Regression testing tests the system efficiency by systematically selecting the suitable and minimum set of tests that are required to effectively cover the affected developer takes the smallest unit of an application, isolates it from the rest of the application code, and tests it to determine whether it works as expected. Unit testing is performed before integrating these independent units into modules. The most common approach to unit testing requires drivers and stubs to be written. the application before its implementation into the production environment. It is done either by a client or an application specialist to ensure that the software meets against a software design. Software components may be integrated in an iterative way or all together (“big bang”). Normally the former is considered a better practice since it allows interface issues to be localized more quickly and fixed. Integration testing works to expose defects in the interfaces and interaction between the integrated components (modules). Progressively larger groups of tested software components corresponding to elements of the architectural design are integrated and tested until the software works as a system.

Question 41

An attacker exploits actual code of an application and uses a security hole to carry out an attack before the application vendor knows about the vulnerability.
Which of the following types of attack is this?

A. Replay

B. Zero-day

C. Man-in-the-middle

D. Denial-of-Service

 


Suggested Answer: mitigate such attacks. Answer: A is incorrect. A replay attack is a type of attack in which attackers capture packets containing passwords or digital signatures

Community Answer: B

A zero-day attack, also known as zero-hour attack, is a computer threat that tries to exploit computer application vulnerabilities which are unknown to others, undisclosed to the software vendor, or for which no security fix is available. Zero-day exploits (actual code that can use a security hole to carry out an attack) are used or shared by attackers before the software vendor knows about the vulnerability. User awareness training is the most effective technique to whenever packets pass between two hosts on a network. In an attempt to obtain an authenticated connection, the attackers then resend the captured packet to middle attacks occur when an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts. The intermediary software or program allows attackers to listen to and modify the communication packets passing between the two hosts. The software intercepts the communication packets
Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack is mounted with the objective of causing a negative impact on the performance of a computer or network. It is also known as network saturation attack or bandwidth consumption attack. Attackers perform DoS attacks by sending a large number of protocol packets to a network.

Question 42

You are the project manager of the CUL project in your organization. You and the project team are assessing the risk events and creating a probability and impact matrix for the identified risks. Which one of the following statements best describes the requirements for the data type used in qualitative risk analysis?

A. A qualitative risk analysis encourages biased data to reveal risk tolerances.

B. A qualitative risk analysis required unbiased stakeholders with biased risk tolerances.

C. A qualitative risk analysis requires accurate and unbiased data if it is to be credible.

D. A qualitative risk analysis requires fast and simple data to complete the analysis.

 


Suggested Answer: Explanation: Of all the choices only this answer is accurate. The PMBOK clearly states that the data must be accurate and unbiased to be credible. Answer: D is

Community Answer: C

 

Question 43

In which of the following types of tests are the disaster recovery checklists distributed to the members of disaster recovery team and asked to review the assigned checklist?

A. Parallel test

B. Simulation test

C. Full-interruption test

D. Checklist test

 


Suggested Answer: disaster recovery team are still working for the organization. Answer: B is incorrect. A simulation test is a method used to test the disaster recovery plans. It

Community Answer: D

A checklist test is a test in which the disaster recovery checklists are distributed to the members of the disaster recovery team. All members are asked to review the assigned checklist. The checklist test is a simple test and it is easy to conduct this test. It allows to accomplish the following three goals: It ensures that the employees are aware of their responsibilities and they have the refreshed knowledge. It provides an individual with an opportunity to review the checklists for obsolete information and update any items that require modification during the changes in the organization. It ensures that the assigned members of operates just like a structured walk- through test. In the simulation test, the members of a disaster recovery team present with a disaster scenario and then, discuss on appropriate responses. These suggested responses are measured and some of them are taken by the team. The range of the simulation test should procedure, and relocates the employees to an alternate recovery site and implements site activation procedures. These employees present with their disaster recovery responsibilities as they would for an actual disaster. The disaster recovery sites have full responsibilities to conduct the day-to-day organization’s the disaster recovery plan. It operates just like a parallel test. The full-interruption test is very expensive and difficult to arrange. Sometimes, it causes a major disruption of operations if the test fails.

Question 44

In which of the following cryptographic attacking techniques does an attacker obtain encrypted messages that have been encrypted using the same encryption algorithm?

A. Chosen plaintext attack

B. Chosen ciphertext attack

C. Ciphertext only attack

D. Known plaintext attack

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: D

In a ciphertext only attack, an attacker obtains encrypted messages that have been encrypted using the same encryption algorithm.

Question 45

To help review or design security controls, they can be classified by several criteria . One of these criteria is based on their nature. According to this criterion, which of the following controls consists of incident response processes, management oversight, security awareness, and training?

A. Compliance control

B. Physical control

C. Procedural control

D. Technical control

 


Suggested Answer: Explanation: Procedural controls include incident response processes, management oversight, security awareness, and training. Answer: B is incorrect. Physical

Community Answer: C

 

Question 46

You are responsible for network and information security at a large hospital. It is a significant concern that any change to any patient record can be easily traced back to the person who made that change. What is this called?

A. Availability

B. Confidentiality

C. Non repudiation

D. Data Protection

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Non repudiation refers to mechanisms that prevent a party from falsely denying involvement in some data transaction.

Question 47

Which of the following roles is also known as the accreditor?

A. Data owner

B. Chief Risk Officer

C. Chief Information Officer

D. Designated Approving Authority

 


Suggested Answer: Explanation: Designated Approving Authority (DAA) is also known as the accreditor. Answer: A is incorrect. The data owner (information owner) is usually a

Community Answer: D

B is incorrect. A Chief Risk Officer (CRO) is also known as Chief Risk Management Officer (CRMO). The Chief Risk Officer or Chief Risk Management Officer of a corporation is the executive accountable for enabling the efficient and effective governance of significant risks, and related opportunities, to a business and its various segments. Risks are commonly categorized as strategic, reputational, operational, financial, or compliance-related. CRO’s are accountable to the
Executive Committee and The Board for enabling the business to balance risk and reward. In more complex organizations, they are generally responsible for
Technology (IT) director, is a job title commonly given to the most senior executive in an enterprise responsible for the information technology and computer systems that support enterprise goals. The CIO plays the role of a leader and reports to the chief executive officer, chief operations officer, or chief financial officer.
In military organizations, they report to the commanding officer.

Question 48

Which of the following statements about the availability concept of Information security management is true?

A. It ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes.

B. It determines actions and behaviors of a single individual within a system.

C. It ensures reliable and timely access to resources.

D. It ensures that unauthorized modifications are not made to data by authorized personnel or processes.

 


Suggested Answer: running when needed. The availability concept also ensures that the security services are in working order. Answer: A and D are incorrect. The concept of integrity

Community Answer: C

The concept of availability ensures reliable and timely access to data or resources. In other words, availability ensures that the systems are up and ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes. It also ensures that unauthorized modifications are not made to data by particular individual. Audit trails and logs support accountability.

Question 49

Which of the following terms ensures that no intentional or unintentional unauthorized modification is made to data?

A. Non-repudiation

B. Integrity

C. Authentication

D. Confidentiality

 


Suggested Answer: Explanation: Integrity ensures that no intentional or unintentional unauthorized modification is made to data. Answer: D is incorrect. Confidentiality refers to the

Community Answer: B

host.

Question 50

Which of the following is a signature-based intrusion detection system (IDS) ?

A. RealSecure

B. StealthWatch

C. Tripwire

D. Snort

 


Suggested Answer: Snort to analyze network traffic for matches against a user-defined rule set. Answer: B is incorrect. StealthWatch is a behavior-based intrusion detection system.

Community Answer: D

Snort is a signature-based intrusion detection system. Snort is an open source network intrusion prevention and detection system that operates as a network sniffer. It logs activities of the network that is matched with the predefined signatures. Signatures can be designed for a wide range of traffic, including
Internet Protocol (IP), Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), User Datagram Protocol (UDP), and Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). The three main modes in which Snort can be configured are as follows: Sniffer mode: It reads the packets of the network and displays them in a continuous stream on the console. Packet logger mode: It logs the packets to the disk. Network intrusion detection mode: It is the most complex and configurable configuration, allowing incorrect. Tripwire is a file integrity checker for UNIX/Linux that can be used for host-based intrusion detection.

Free Access Full CSSLP Practice Exam Free

Looking for additional practice? Click here to access a full set of CSSLP practice exam free questions and continue building your skills across all exam domains.

Our question sets are updated regularly to ensure they stay aligned with the latest exam objectives—so be sure to visit often!

Good luck with your CSSLP certification journey!

Share18Tweet11
Previous Post

CS0-003 Practice Exam Free

Next Post

CV0-003 Practice Exam Free

Next Post

CV0-003 Practice Exam Free

DA0-001 Practice Exam Free

DAS-C01 Practice Exam Free

Leave a Reply Cancel reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Recommended

Network+ Practice Test

Comptia Security+ Practice Test

A+ Certification Practice Test

Aws Cloud Practitioner Exam Questions

Aws Cloud Practitioner Practice Exam

Comptia A+ Practice Test

  • About
  • DMCA
  • Privacy & Policy
  • Contact

PracticeTestFree.com materials do not contain actual questions and answers from Cisco's Certification Exams. PracticeTestFree.com doesn't offer Real Microsoft Exam Questions. PracticeTestFree.com doesn't offer Real Amazon Exam Questions.

  • Login
  • Sign Up
No Result
View All Result
  • Quesions
    • Cisco
    • AWS
    • Microsoft
    • CompTIA
    • Google
    • ISACA
    • ECCouncil
    • F5
    • GIAC
    • ISC
    • Juniper
    • LPI
    • Oracle
    • Palo Alto Networks
    • PMI
    • RedHat
    • Salesforce
    • VMware
  • Courses
    • CCNA
    • ENCOR
    • VMware vSphere
  • Certificates

Welcome Back!

Login to your account below

Forgotten Password? Sign Up

Create New Account!

Fill the forms below to register

All fields are required. Log In

Retrieve your password

Please enter your username or email address to reset your password.

Log In

Insert/edit link

Enter the destination URL

Or link to existing content

    No search term specified. Showing recent items. Search or use up and down arrow keys to select an item.