CSSLP Practice Exam Free – 50 Questions to Simulate the Real Exam
Are you getting ready for the CSSLP certification? Take your preparation to the next level with our CSSLP Practice Exam Free – a carefully designed set of 50 realistic exam-style questions to help you evaluate your knowledge and boost your confidence.
Using a CSSLP practice exam free is one of the best ways to:
- Experience the format and difficulty of the real exam
- Identify your strengths and focus on weak areas
- Improve your test-taking speed and accuracy
Below, you will find 50 realistic CSSLP practice exam free questions covering key exam topics. Each question reflects the structure and challenge of the actual exam.
Which of the following programming languages are compiled into machine code and directly executed by the CPU of a computer system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. C
B. Microosft.NET
C. Java EE
D. C++
You work as a Security Manager for Tech Perfect Inc. In the organization, Syslog is used for computer system management and security auditing, as well as for generalized informational, analysis, and debugging messages. You want to prevent a denial of service (DoS) for the Syslog server and the loss of Syslog messages from other sources. What will you do to accomplish the task?
A. Use a different message format other than Syslog in order to accept data.
B. Enable the storage of log entries in both traditional Syslog files and a database.
C. Limit the number of Syslog messages or TCP connections from a specific source for a certain time period.
D. Encrypt rotated log files automatically using third-party or OS mechanisms.
Numerous information security standards promote good security practices and define frameworks or systems to structure the analysis and design for managing information security controls. Which of the following are the international information security standards? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. AU audit and accountability
B. Human resources security
C. Organization of information security
D. Risk assessment and treatment
Which of the following secure coding principles and practices defines the appearance of code listing so that a code reviewer and maintainer who have not written that code can easily understand it?
A. Make code forward and backward traceable
B. Review code during and after coding
C. Use a consistent coding style
D. Keep code simple and small
Which of the following strategies is used to minimize the effects of a disruptive event on a company, and is created to prevent interruptions to normal business activity?
A. Continuity of Operations Plan
B. Contingency Plan
C. Disaster Recovery Plan
D. Business Continuity Plan
Which of the following ensures that a party to a dispute cannot deny the authenticity of their signature on a document or the sending of a message that they originated?
A. Confidentiality
B. OS fingerprinting
C. Reconnaissance
D. Non-repudiation
In which of the following DIACAP phases is residual risk analyzed?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 5
C. Phase 2
D. Phase 4
E. Phase 3
There are seven risks responses that a project manager can choose from. Which risk response is appropriate for both positive and negative risk events?
A. Acceptance
B. Transference
C. Sharing
D. Mitigation
Billy is the project manager of the HAR Project and is in month six of the project. The project is scheduled to last for 18 months. Management asks Billy how often the project team is participating in risk reassessment in this project. What should Billy tell management if he's following the best practices for risk management?
A. Project risk management happens at every milestone.
B. Project risk management has been concluded with the project planning.
C. Project risk management is scheduled for every month in the 18-month project.
D. At every status meeting the project team project risk management is an agenda item.
Which of the following elements of BCP process includes the areas of plan implementation, plan testing, and ongoing plan maintenance, and also involves defining and documenting the continuity strategy?
A. Business continuity plan development
B. Business impact assessment
C. Scope and plan initiation
D. Plan approval and implementation
What are the security advantages of virtualization, as described in the NIST Information Security and Privacy Advisory Board (ISPAB) paper "Perspectives on Cloud Computing and Standards"? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. It increases capabilities for fault tolerant computing.
B. It adds a layer of security for defense-in-depth.
C. It decreases exposure of weak software.
D. It decreases configuration effort.
The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in Phase 3. What are the process activities of this phase? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Security operations
B. Maintenance of the SSAA
C. Compliance validation
D. Change management
E. System operations
F. Continue to review and refine the SSAA
Which of the following types of obfuscation transformation increases the difficulty for a de-obfuscation tool so that it cannot extract the true application from the obfuscated version?
A. Preventive transformation
B. Data obfuscation
C. Control obfuscation
D. Layout obfuscation
The DoD 8500 policy series represents the Department's information assurance strategy. Which of the following objectives are defined by the DoD 8500 series? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Defending systems
B. Providing IA Certification and Accreditation
C. Providing command and control and situational awareness
D. Protecting information
Which of the following attacks causes software to fail and prevents the intended users from accessing software?
A. Enabling attack
B. Reconnaissance attack
C. Sabotage attack
D. Disclosure attack
Which of the following models uses a directed graph to specify the rights that a subject can transfer to an object or that a subject can take from another subject?
A. Take-Grant Protection Model
B. Biba Integrity Model
C. Bell-LaPadula Model
D. Access Matrix
Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. Which of the following statements are true about Certification and Accreditation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system.
B. Accreditation is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system.
C. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system.
D. Certification is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system.
Which of the following coding practices are helpful in simplifying code? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Programmers should use multiple small and simple functions rather than a single complex function.
B. Software should avoid ambiguities and hidden assumptions, recursions, and GoTo statements.
C. Programmers should implement high-consequence functions in minimum required lines of code and follow proper coding standards.
D. Processes should have multiple entry and exit points.
John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. In order to do so, he performs the following steps of the pre-attack phase successfully: Information gathering Determination of network range Identification of active systems Location of open ports and applications Now, which of the following tasks should he perform next?
A. Perform OS fingerprinting on the We-are-secure network.
B. Map the network of We-are-secure Inc.
C. Install a backdoor to log in remotely on the We-are-secure server.
D. Fingerprint the services running on the we-are-secure network.
In which of the following processes are experienced personnel and software tools used to investigate, resolve, and handle process deviation, malformed data, infrastructure, or connectivity issues?
A. Risk Management
B. Exception management
C. Configuration Management
D. Change Management
Which of the following is a set of exclusive rights granted by a state to an inventor or his assignee for a fixed period of time in exchange for the disclosure of an invention?
A. Copyright
B. Snooping
C. Utility model
D. Patent
Which of the following is an example of over-the-air (OTA) provisioning in digital rights management?
A. Use of shared secrets to initiate or rebuild trust.
B. Use of software to meet the deployment goals.
C. Use of concealment to avoid tampering attacks.
D. Use of device properties for unique identification.
You are the project manager of the NNN project for your company. You and the project team are working together to plan the risk responses for the project. You feel that the team has successfully completed the risk response planning and now you must initiate what risk process it is. Which of the following risk processes is repeated after the plan risk responses to determine if the overall project risk has been satisfactorily decreased?
A. Quantitative risk analysis
B. Risk identification
C. Risk response implementation
D. Qualitative risk analysis
Which of the following types of attacks is targeting a Web server with multiple compromised computers that are simultaneously sending hundreds of FIN packets with spoofed IP source IP addresses?
A. DDoS attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Insertion attack
D. Dictionary attack
What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing Working Group?
A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring
B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing
C. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on
D. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring
Which of the following process areas does the SSE-CMM define in the 'Project and Organizational Practices' category? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Provide Ongoing Skills and Knowledge
B. Verify and Validate Security
C. Manage Project Risk
D. Improve Organization’s System Engineering Process
Which of the following methods offers a number of modeling practices and disciplines that contribute to a successful service-oriented life cycle management and modeling?
A. Service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF)
B. Service-oriented architecture (SOA)
C. Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture (SABSA)
D. Service-oriented modeling and architecture (SOMA)
Which of the following security controls works as the totality of protection mechanisms within a computer system, including hardware, firmware, and software, the combination of which is responsible for enforcing a security policy?
A. Common data security architecture (CDSA)
B. Application program interface (API)
C. Trusted computing base (TCB)
D. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
Which of the following statements are true about declarative security? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It is employed in a layer that relies outside of the software code or uses attributes of the code.
B. It applies the security policies on the software applications at their runtime.
C. In this security, authentication decisions are made based on the business logic.
D. In this security, the security decisions are based on explicit statements.
Which of the following methods does the Java Servlet Specification v2.4 define in the HttpServletRequest interface that control programmatic security? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. getCallerIdentity()
B. isUserInRole()
C. getUserPrincipal()
D. getRemoteUser()
You work as a security manager for BlueWell Inc. You are going through the NIST SP 800-37 C&A methodology, which is based on four well defined phases. In which of the following phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A methodology does the security categorization occur?
A. Security Accreditation
B. Security Certification
C. Continuous Monitoring
D. Initiation
Which of the following governance bodies directs and coordinates implementations of the information security program?
A. Chief Information Security Officer
B. Information Security Steering Committee
C. Business Unit Manager
D. Senior Management
Which of the following is an example of penetration testing?
A. Implementing NIDS on a network
B. Implementing HIDS on a computer
C. Simulating an actual attack on a network
D. Configuring firewall to block unauthorized traffic
Which of the following are examples of the application programming interface (API)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. HTML
B. PHP
C. .NET
D. Perl
Companies use some special marks to distinguish their products from those of other companies. These marks can include words, letters, numbers, drawings, etc. Which of the following terms describes these special marks?
A. Business mark
B. Trademark
C. Sales mark
D. Product mark
Which of the following techniques is used when a system performs the penetration testing with the objective of accessing unauthorized information residing inside a computer?
A. Biometrician
B. Van Eck Phreaking
C. Port scanning
D. Phreaking
Which of the following areas of information system, as separated by Information Assurance Framework, is a collection of local computing devices, regardless of physical location, that are interconnected via local area networks (LANs) and governed by a single security policy?
A. Local Computing Environments
B. Networks and Infrastructures
C. Supporting Infrastructures
D. Enclave Boundaries
Which of the following organizations assists the President in overseeing the preparation of the federal budget and to supervise its administration in Executive Branch agencies?
A. OMB
B. NIST
C. NSA/CSS
D. DCAA
Which of the following types of attacks occurs when an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts?
A. Denial-of-service attack
B. Dictionary attack
C. Man-in-the-middle attack
D. Password guessing attack
Which of the following testing methods tests the system efficiency by systematically selecting the suitable and minimum set of tests that are required to effectively cover the affected changes?
A. Unit testing
B. Integration testing
C. Acceptance testing
D. Regression testing
An attacker exploits actual code of an application and uses a security hole to carry out an attack before the application vendor knows about the vulnerability. Which of the following types of attack is this?
A. Replay
B. Zero-day
C. Man-in-the-middle
D. Denial-of-Service
You are the project manager of the CUL project in your organization. You and the project team are assessing the risk events and creating a probability and impact matrix for the identified risks. Which one of the following statements best describes the requirements for the data type used in qualitative risk analysis?
A. A qualitative risk analysis encourages biased data to reveal risk tolerances.
B. A qualitative risk analysis required unbiased stakeholders with biased risk tolerances.
C. A qualitative risk analysis requires accurate and unbiased data if it is to be credible.
D. A qualitative risk analysis requires fast and simple data to complete the analysis.
In which of the following types of tests are the disaster recovery checklists distributed to the members of disaster recovery team and asked to review the assigned checklist?
A. Parallel test
B. Simulation test
C. Full-interruption test
D. Checklist test
In which of the following cryptographic attacking techniques does an attacker obtain encrypted messages that have been encrypted using the same encryption algorithm?
A. Chosen plaintext attack
B. Chosen ciphertext attack
C. Ciphertext only attack
D. Known plaintext attack
To help review or design security controls, they can be classified by several criteria . One of these criteria is based on their nature. According to this criterion, which of the following controls consists of incident response processes, management oversight, security awareness, and training?
A. Compliance control
B. Physical control
C. Procedural control
D. Technical control
You are responsible for network and information security at a large hospital. It is a significant concern that any change to any patient record can be easily traced back to the person who made that change. What is this called?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Non repudiation
D. Data Protection
Which of the following roles is also known as the accreditor?
A. Data owner
B. Chief Risk Officer
C. Chief Information Officer
D. Designated Approving Authority
Which of the following statements about the availability concept of Information security management is true?
A. It ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes.
B. It determines actions and behaviors of a single individual within a system.
C. It ensures reliable and timely access to resources.
D. It ensures that unauthorized modifications are not made to data by authorized personnel or processes.
Which of the following terms ensures that no intentional or unintentional unauthorized modification is made to data?
A. Non-repudiation
B. Integrity
C. Authentication
D. Confidentiality
Which of the following is a signature-based intrusion detection system (IDS) ?
A. RealSecure
B. StealthWatch
C. Tripwire
D. Snort
Free Access Full CSSLP Practice Exam Free
Looking for additional practice? Click here to access a full set of CSSLP practice exam free questions and continue building your skills across all exam domains.
Our question sets are updated regularly to ensure they stay aligned with the latest exam objectives—so be sure to visit often!
Good luck with your CSSLP certification journey!