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  • CSSLP Mock Test Free – 50 Realistic Questions to Prepare with Confidence.
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CSSLP Mock Test Free – 50 Realistic Questions to Prepare with Confidence.

Getting ready for your CSSLP certification exam? Start your preparation the smart way with our CSSLP Mock Test Free – a carefully crafted set of 50 realistic, exam-style questions to help you practice effectively and boost your confidence.

Using a mock test free for CSSLP exam is one of the best ways to:

  • Familiarize yourself with the actual exam format and question style
  • Identify areas where you need more review
  • Strengthen your time management and test-taking strategy

Below, you will find 50 free questions from our CSSLP Mock Test Free resource. These questions are structured to reflect the real exam’s difficulty and content areas, helping you assess your readiness accurately.

Question 1

Which of the following penetration testing techniques automatically tests every phone line in an exchange and tries to locate modems that are attached to the network?

A. Demon dialing

B. Sniffing

C. Social engineering

D. Dumpster diving

 


Suggested Answer: Information about these modems can then be used to attempt external unauthorized access. Answer: B is incorrect. In sniffing, a protocol analyzer is used to

Community Answer: A

The demon dialing technique automatically tests every phone line in an exchange and tries to locate modems that are attached to the network. most commonly used technique of all, getting information (like passwords) just by asking for them.

Question 2

Which of the following are examples of the application programming interface (API)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. HTML

B. PHP

C. .NET

D. Perl

 


Suggested Answer: consistent with the operating environment. Answer: A is incorrect. HTML stands for Hypertext Markup Language. It is a set of markup symbols or codes used to

Community Answer: BCD

Perl, .NET, and PHP are examples of the application programming interface (API). API is a set of routines, protocols, and tools that users can use to work with a component, application, or operating system. It consists of one or more DLLs that provide specific functionality. API helps in reducing the development time of applications by reducing application code. Most operating environments, such as MS-Windows, provide an API so that programmers can write applications create Web pages and define formatting specifications. The markup tells the Web browser how to display the content of the Web page.

Question 3

You work as a security engineer for BlueWell Inc. Which of the following documents will you use as a guide for the security certification and accreditation of
Federal Information Systems?

A. NIST Special Publication 800-60

B. NIST Special Publication 800-53

C. NIST Special Publication 800-37

D. NIST Special Publication 800-59

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

NIST has developed a suite of documents for conducting Certification & Accreditation (C&A). These documents are as follows: NIST Special
Publication 800-37: This document is a guide for the security certification and accreditation of Federal Information Systems.
NIST Special Publication 800-53: This document provides a guideline for security controls for Federal Information Systems. NIST Special Publication 800-53A.
This document consists of techniques and procedures for verifying the effectiveness of security controls in Federal Information System. NIST Special Publication
800-59: This document is a guideline for identifying an information system as a National Security System. NIST Special Publication 800-60: This document is a guide for mapping types of information and information systems to security objectives and risk levels.

Question 4

Which of the following types of attacks occurs when an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts?

A. Denial-of-service attack

B. Dictionary attack

C. Man-in-the-middle attack

D. Password guessing attack

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

When an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts, it is known as man-in-the-middle attack.

Question 5

In which of the following testing methodologies do assessors use all available documentation and work under no constraints, and attempt to circumvent the security features of an information system?

A. Full operational test

B. Penetration test

C. Paper test

D. Walk-through test

 


Suggested Answer: and the amount of business impact of a successful exploit, if discovered. It is a component of a full security audit. Answer: C is incorrect. A paper test is the least

Community Answer: B

A penetration testing is a method of evaluating the security of a computer system or network by simulating an attack from a malicious source. The process involves an active analysis of the system for any potential vulnerabilities that may result from poor or improper system configuration, known or unknown hardware or software flaws, or operational weaknesses in process or technical countermeasures. This analysis is carried out from the position of a potential attacker, and can involve active exploitation of security vulnerabilities. Any security issues that are found will be presented to the system owner together with an assessment of their impact and often with a proposal for mitigation or a technical solution. The intent of a penetration test is to determine feasibility of an attack complex test in the disaster recovery and business continuity testing approaches. In this test, the BCP/DRP plan documents are distributed to the appropriate managers and BCP/DRP team members for review, markup, and comment. This approach helps the auditor to ensure that the plan is complete and that all team continuity and disaster recovery process. In this testing methodology, appropriate managers and BCP/DRP team members discuss and walk through procedures members and participants in the disaster recovery and business continuity process. This full operation test involves the mobilization of personnel. It restores operations in the same manner as an outage or disaster would. The full operational test extends the preparedness test by including actual notification, mobilization of resources, processing of data, and utilization of backup media for restoration.

Question 6

Part of your change management plan details what should happen in the change control system for your project. Theresa, a junior project manager, asks what the configuration management activities are for scope changes. You tell her that all of the following are valid configuration management activities except for which one?

A. Configuration Identification

B. Configuration Verification and Auditing

C. Configuration Status Accounting

D. Configuration Item Costing

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Configuration item cost is not a valid activity for configuration management. Cost changes are managed by the cost change control system; configuration management is concerned with changes to the features and functions of the project deliverables.

Question 7

The National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP) is the minimum standard process for the certification and accreditation of computer and telecommunications systems that handle U.S. national security information. Which of the following participants are required in a NIACAP security assessment? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Certification agent

B. Designated Approving Authority

C. IS program manager

D. Information Assurance Manager

E. User representative

 


Suggested Answer: process. Answer: D is incorrect. Information Assurance Manager (IAM) is one of the key participants in the DIACAP process.

Community Answer: ABCE

The NIACAP roles are nearly the same as the DITSCAP roles. Four minimum participants (roles) are required to perform a NIACAP security assessment: IS program manager: The IS program manager is the primary authorization advocate. He is responsible for the Information Systems (IS) throughout the life cycle of the system development. Designated Approving Authority (DAA): The Designated Approving Authority (DAA), in the United States Department of
Defense, is the official with the authority to formally assume responsibility for operating a system at an acceptable level of risk. Certification agent: The certification agent is also referred to as the certifier. He provides the technical expertise to conduct the certification throughout the system life cycle. User representative: The user representative focuses on system availability, access, integrity, functionality, performance, and confidentiality in a Certification and Accreditation (C&A)

Question 8

Which of the following are the initial steps required to perform a risk analysis process? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.

A. Valuations of the critical assets in hard costs.

B. Evaluate potential threats to the assets.

C. Estimate the potential losses to assets by determining their value.

D. Establish the threats likelihood and regularity.

 


Suggested Answer: potential threats to the assets. Establish the threats probability and regularity. Answer: A is incorrect. Valuations of the critical assets in hard costs is one of the

Community Answer: BCD

The main steps of performing risk analysis are as follows: Estimate the potential losses to the assets by determining their value. Evaluate the final steps taken after performing the risk analysis.

Question 9

Which of the following agencies is responsible for funding the development of many technologies such as computer networking, as well as NLS?

A. DIAP

B. DTIC

C. DARPA

D. DISA

 


Suggested Answer: transforming DoD. Answer: D is incorrect. The Defense Information Systems Agency is a United States Department of Defense combat support agency with the

Community Answer: C

The Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency (DARPA) is an agency of the United States Department of Defense responsible for the development of new technology for use by the military. DARPA has been responsible for funding the development of many technologies which have had a major effect on the world, including computer networking, as well as NLS, which was both the first hypertext system, and an important precursor to the contemporary ubiquitous graphical user interface. DARPA supplies technological options for the entire Department, and is designed to be the “technological engine” for goal of providing real-time information technology (IT) and communications support to the President, Vice President, Secretary of Defense, the military Services, and the Combatant Commands. DISA, a Combat Support Agency, engineers and provides command and control capabilities and enterprise infrastructure to continuously operate and assure a global net-centric enterprise in direct support to joint warfighters, National level leaders, and other mission and coalition documents for the United States Department of Defense. DTIC serves the DoD community as the largest central resource for DoD and government-funded scientific, technical, engineering, and business related information available today. DTIC’s documents are available to DoD personnel and defense contractors, with unclassified documents also available to the public. DTIC’s aim is to serve a vital link in the transfer of information among DoD personnel, DoD contractors,
Program (DIAP) protects and supports DoD information, information systems, and information networks, which is important to the Department and the armed forces throughout the day-to-day operations, and in the time of crisis. The DIAP uses the OSD method to plan, observe, organize, and incorporate IA activities.
The role of DIAP is to act as a facilitator for program execution by the combatant commanders, Military Services, and Defense Agencies. The DIAP staff combines functional and programmatic skills for a comprehensive Defense-wide approach to IA. The DIAP’s main objective is to ensure that the DoD’s vital information resources are secured and protected by incorporating IA activities to get a secure net-centric GIG operation enablement and information supremacy by applying a
Defense-in-Depth methodology that integrates the capabilities of people, operations, and technology to establish a multi-layer, multidimensional protection.

Question 10

Which of the following processes culminates in an agreement between key players that a system in its current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls?

A. Information Assurance (IA)

B. Information systems security engineering (ISSE)

C. Certification and accreditation (C&A)

D. Risk Management

 


Suggested Answer: implementation of an agreed-upon set of security controls. Answer: D is incorrect. Risk management is a set of processes that ensures a risk-based approach is

Community Answer: C

Certification and accreditation (C&A) is a set of processes that culminate in an agreement between key players that a system in its current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls. Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security.
It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. The C&A process is used extensively in the U.S. Federal Government. Some C&A processes include FISMA, NIACAP, DIACAP, and DCID 6/3. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system, made in support of security accreditation, to determine the extent to which the controls are implemented correctly, operating as intended, and producing the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the system. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system and to explicitly accept the risk to agency operations (including mission, functions, image, or reputation), agency assets, or individuals, based on the information-related risks. It ensures that only the approved users have access to the approved information at the approved time. IA practitioners seek to protect and defend information and information systems by ensuring confidentiality, integrity, authentication, availability, and non-repudiation. These objectives are and solutions used during all phases of a system’s life cycle to meet the system’s information protection needs.

Question 11

Which of the following secure coding principles and practices defines the appearance of code listing so that a code reviewer and maintainer who have not written that code can easily understand it?

A. Make code forward and backward traceable

B. Review code during and after coding

C. Use a consistent coding style

D. Keep code simple and small

 


Suggested Answer: same guidelines. Answer: D is incorrect. Keep code simple and small defines that it is easy to verify the software security when a programmer uses small and

Community Answer: C

Use a consistent coding style is one of the principles and practices that contribute to defensive coding. This principle defines the appearance of code listing so that a code reviewer and maintainer who have not written that code can easily understand it. For this purpose, all programmers of a team must follow the defines that code must be examined in order to identify coding errors in modules.

Question 12

Which of the following security models characterizes the rights of each subject with respect to every object in the computer system?

A. Clark-Wilson model

B. Bell-LaPadula model

C. Biba model

D. Access matrix

 


Suggested Answer: and r(s,o) R. A right thereby specifies the kind of access a subject is allowed to process with regard to an object. Answer: B is incorrect. The Bell-La Padula Model

Community Answer: D

The access matrix or access control matrix is an abstract, formal security model of protection state in computer systems that characterizes the rights of each subject with respect to every object in the system. It was first introduced by Butler W. Lampson in 1971. According to the access matrix model, the protection state of a computer system can be abstracted as a set of objects ‘O’, that is the set of entities that needs to be protected (e.g. processes, files, memory pages) and a set of subjects ‘S’ that consists of all active entities (e.g. users, processes). Further there exists a set of rights ‘R’ of the form r(s,o), where s S, o O is a state machine model used for enforcing access control in government and military applications. The model is a formal state transition model of computer security policy that describes a set of access control rules which use security labels on objects and clearances for subjects. Security labels range from the most sensitive (e.g.,”Top Secret”), down to the least sensitive (e.g., “Unclassified” or “Public”). The Bell-La Padula model focuses on data confidentiality and controlled
Wilson model provides a foundation for specifying and analyzing an integrity policy for a computing system. The model is primarily concerned with formalizing the notion of information integrity. Information integrity is maintained by preventing corruption of data items in a system due to either error or malicious intent. The model’s enforcement and certification rules define data items and processes that provide the basis for an integrity policy. The core of the model is based on the rules designed to ensure data integrity. Data and subjects are grouped into ordered levels of integrity. The model is designed so that subjects may not corrupt data in a level ranked higher than the subject, or be corrupted by data from a lower level than the subject.

Question 13

You and your project team have identified the project risks and now are analyzing the probability and impact of the risks. What type of analysis of the risks provides a quick and high-level review of each identified risk event?

A. Quantitative risk analysis

B. Qualitative risk analysis

C. Seven risk responses

D. A risk probability-impact matrix

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

Qualitative risk analysis is a high-level, fast review of the risk event. Qualitative risk analysis qualifies the risk events for additional analysis.

Question 14

Which of the following process areas does the SSE-CMM define in the 'Project and Organizational Practices' category? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Provide Ongoing Skills and Knowledge

B. Verify and Validate Security

C. Manage Project Risk

D. Improve Organization’s System Engineering Process

 


Suggested Answer: ACD

Community Answer: ACD

Project and Organizational Practices include the following process areas: PA12: Ensure Quality PA13: Manage Configuration PA14: Manage Project
Risk PA15: Monitor and Control Technical Effort PA16: Plan Technical Effort PA17: Define Organization’s System Engineering Process PA18: Improve
Organization’s System Engineering Process PA19: Manage Product Line Evolution PA20: Manage Systems Engineering Support Environment PA21: Provide
Ongoing Skills and Knowledge PA22: Coordinate with Suppliers

Question 15

Which of the following statements are true about declarative security? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. It is employed in a layer that relies outside of the software code or uses attributes of the code.

B. It applies the security policies on the software applications at their runtime.

C. In this security, authentication decisions are made based on the business logic.

D. In this security, the security decisions are based on explicit statements.

 


Suggested Answer: of the software code or uses attributes of the code. Answer: C is incorrect. In declarative security, authentication decisions are coarse-grained in nature from an

Community Answer: AB

Declarative security applies the security policies on the software applications at their runtime. In this type of security, the security decisions are based on explicit statements that confine security behavior. Declarative security applies security permissions that are required for the software application to access the local resources and provides role-based access control to an individual software component and software application. It is employed in a layer that relies outside operational or external security perspective.

Question 16

In which of the following processes are experienced personnel and software tools used to investigate, resolve, and handle process deviation, malformed data, infrastructure, or connectivity issues?

A. Risk Management

B. Exception management

C. Configuration Management

D. Change Management

 


Suggested Answer: data, infrastructure or connectivity issues. It increases the efficiency of business processes and contributes in the progress of business. Answer: C is incorrect.

Community Answer: B

Exception management is a process in which experienced personnel and software tools are used to investigate, resolve, and handle process deviation, malformed
Configuration Management (CM) is an Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) IT Service Management (ITSM) process. It tracks all of the individual
Configuration Items (CI) in an IT system, which may be as simple as a single server, or as complex as the entire IT department. In large organizations a control risks. It includes analyzing the value of assets to the business, identifying threats to those assets, and evaluating how vulnerable each asset is to those threats. Risk Management is part of Service Design and the owner of the Risk Management is the Risk Manager. Risks are addressed within several processes in
ITIL V3; however, there is no dedicated Risk Management process. ITIL V3 calls for “coordinated risk assessment exercises”, so at IT Process Maps we decided used for efficient handling of all changes. A change is “an event that results in a new status of one or more configuration items (CI’s)” approved by management, cost effective, enhances business process changes (fixes) – with a minimum risk to IT infrastructure. The main aims of Change Management are as follows:
Minimal disruption of services Reduction in back-out activities Economic utilization of resources involved in the change

Question 17

Which of the following activities are performed by the 'Do' cycle component of PDCA (plan-do-check-act)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.

A. It detects and responds to incidents properly.

B. It determines controls and their objectives.

C. It manages resources that are required to achieve a goal.

D. It performs security awareness training.

E. It operates the selected controls.

 


Suggested Answer: security awareness training. It manages resources that are required to achieve a goal. Answer: B is incorrect. This activity is performed by the ‘Plan’ cycle

Community Answer: AE

The ‘Do’ cycle component performs the following activities: It operates the selected controls. It detects and responds to incidents properly. It performs component of PDCA.

Question 18

Martha works as a Project Leader for BlueWell Inc. She and her team have developed accounting software. The software was performing well. Recently, the software has been modified. The users of this software are now complaining about the software not working properly. Which of the following actions will she take to test the software?

A. Perform integration testing

B. Perform regression testing

C. Perform unit testing

D. Perform acceptance testing

 


Suggested Answer: ensure that no existing errors reappear, and no new errors are introduced. Answer: D is incorrect. The acceptance testing is performed on the application before

Community Answer: B

Regression testing can be performed any time when a program needs to be modified either to add a feature or to fix an error. It is a process of repeating Unit testing and Integration testing whenever existing tests need to be performed again along with the new tests. Regression testing is performed to its implementation into the production environment. It is done either by a client or an application specialist to ensure that the software meets the requirement for more units are combined into a component. During integration testing, a developer combines two units that have already been tested into a component, and tests the interface between the two units. Although integration testing can be performed in various ways, the following three approaches are generally used: The top- application is tested separately. During unit testing, a developer takes the smallest unit of an application, isolates it from the rest of the application code, and tests it to determine whether it works as expected. Unit testing is performed before integrating these independent units into modules. The most common approach to unit testing requires drivers and stubs to be written. Drivers and stubs are programs. A driver simulates a calling unit, and a stub simulates a called unit.

Question 19

Which of the following is an example of over-the-air (OTA) provisioning in digital rights management?

A. Use of shared secrets to initiate or rebuild trust.

B. Use of software to meet the deployment goals.

C. Use of concealment to avoid tampering attacks.

D. Use of device properties for unique identification.

 


Suggested Answer: copyrighted software to a mobile device. For example, use of shared secrets to initiate or rebuild trust. Answer: D and C are incorrect. The use of device

Community Answer: A

Over- the- air provisioning is a mechanism to deploy MIDlet suites over a network. It is a method of distributing MIDlet suites. MIDlet suite providers install their MIDlet suites on Web servers and provide a hypertext link for downloading. A user can use this link to download the MIDlet suite either through the
Internet microbrowser or through WAP on his device. Over-the-air provisioning is required for end-to-end encryption or other security purposes in order to deliver properties for unique identification and the use of concealment to avoid tampering attacks are the security challenges in digital rights management (DRM).

Question 20

Which of the following individuals inspects whether the security policies, standards, guidelines, and procedures are efficiently performed in accordance with the company's stated security objectives?

A. Information system security professional

B. Data owner

C. Senior management

D. Information system auditor

 


Suggested Answer: by performing regular and independent audits. Answer: B is incorrect. A data owner determines the sensitivity or classification levels of data. Answer: A is

Community Answer: A

An information system auditor is an individual who inspects whether the security policies, standards, guidelines, and procedures are efficiently performed in accordance with the company’s stated security objectives. He is responsible for reporting the senior management about the value of security controls incorrect. An informational systems security professional is an individual who designs, implements, manages, and reviews the security policies, standards, senior management assigns overall responsibilities to other individuals.

Question 21

Which of the following are the primary functions of configuration management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. It removes the risk event entirely by adding additional steps to avoid the event.

B. It ensures that the change is implemented in a sequential manner through formalized testing.

C. It reduces the negative impact that the change might have had on the computing services and resources.

D. It analyzes the effect of the change that is implemented on the system.

 


Suggested Answer: the negative impact that the change might have had on the computing services and resources. Answer: A is incorrect. It is not one of the primary functions of

Community Answer: BCD

The primary functions of configuration management are as follows: It ensures that the change is implemented in a sequential manner through formalized testing. It ensures that the user base is informed of the future change. It analyzes the effect of the change that is implemented on the system. It reduces configuration management. It is the function of risk avoidance.

Question 22

Joseph works as a Software Developer for WebTech Inc. He wants to protect the algorithms and the techniques of programming that he uses in developing an application. Which of the following laws are used to protect a part of software?

A. Code Security law

B. Patent laws

C. Trademark laws

D. Copyright laws

 


Suggested Answer: limited though, i.e., the author of the product has the right to use the patent for only a specific length of time. Answer: D is incorrect. Copyright laws protect original

Patent laws are used to protect the duplication of software. Software patents cover the algorithms and techniques that are used in creating the software. It does not cover the entire program of the software. Patents give the author the right to make and sell his product. The time of the patent of a product is works or creations of authorship including literary, dramatic, musical, artistic, and certain other intellectual works.

Question 23

Microsoft software security expert Michael Howard defines some heuristics for determining code review in "A Process for Performing Security Code Reviews".
Which of the following heuristics increase the application's attack surface? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Code written in C/C++/assembly language

B. Code listening on a globally accessible network interface

C. Code that changes frequently

D. Anonymously accessible code

E. Code that runs by default

F. Code that runs in elevated context

 


Suggested Answer: BDEF

Community Answer: BDEF

Microsoft software security expert Michael Howard defines the following heuristics for determining code review in “A Process for Performing Security
Code Reviews”: Old code: Newer code provides better understanding of software security and has lesser number of vulnerabilities. Older code must be checked deeply. Code that runs by default: It must have high quality, and must be checked deeply than code that does not execute by default. Code that runs by default increases the application’s attack surface.
Code that runs in elevated context: It must have higher quality. Code that runs in elevated privileges must be checked deeply and increases the application’s attack surface. Anonymously accessible code: It must be checked deeply than code that only authorized users and administrators can access, and it increases the application’s attack surface. Code listening on a globally accessible network interface: It must be checked deeply for security vulnerabilities and increases the application’s attack surface. Code written in C/C++/assembly language: It is prone to security vulnerabilities, for example, buffer overruns. Code with a history of security vulnerabilities: It includes additional vulnerabilities except concerted efforts that are required for removing them. Code that handles sensitive data: It must be checked deeply to ensure that data is protected from unintentional disclosure. Complex code: It includes undiscovered errors because it is more difficult to analyze complex code manually and programmatically. Code that changes frequently: It has more security vulnerabilities than code that does not change frequently.

Question 24

The organization level is the Tier 1 and it addresses risks from an organizational perspective. What are the various Tier 1 activities? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. The organization plans to use the degree and type of oversight, to ensure that the risk management strategy is being effectively carried out.

B. The level of risk tolerance.

C. The techniques and methodologies an organization plans to employ, to evaluate information system-related security risks.

D. The RMF primarily operates at Tier 1.

 


Suggested Answer: The organization plans to use the degree and type of oversight, in order to ensure that the risk management strategy is being effectively carried out.Answer: D is

Community Answer: ABC

The Organization Level is the Tier 1, and it addresses risks from an organizational perspective. It includes the following points: The techniques and methodologies an organization plans to employ, to evaluate information system-related security risks. During risk assessment, the methods and procedures the organization plans to use, to evaluate the significance of the risks identified. The types and extent of risk mitigation measures the organization plans to employ, to address identified risks. The level of risk tolerance. According to the environment of operation, how the organization plans to monitor risks on an ongoing basis, given the inevitable changes to organizational information system. incorrect. The RMF primarily operates at Tier 3.

Question 25

The Web resource collection is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification v2.4. Which of the following elements does it include?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. HTTP methods

B. Role names

C. Transport guarantees

D. URL patterns

 


Suggested Answer: element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification v2.4. The Web resource collection includes the following elements: URL patterns HTTP methods Answer: B

Community Answer: BD

Web resource collection is a set of URL patterns and HTTP operations that define all resources required to be protected. It is a security constraint

Question 26

In which of the following cryptographic attacking techniques does an attacker obtain encrypted messages that have been encrypted using the same encryption algorithm?

A. Chosen plaintext attack

B. Chosen ciphertext attack

C. Ciphertext only attack

D. Known plaintext attack

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: D

In a ciphertext only attack, an attacker obtains encrypted messages that have been encrypted using the same encryption algorithm.

Question 27

The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) provides a common modeling notation to address alignment between business and IT organizations. Which of the following principles does the SOMF concentrate on? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Architectural components abstraction

B. SOA value proposition

C. Business traceability

D. Disaster recovery planning

E. Software assets reuse

 


Suggested Answer: Architectural components abstraction Answer: D is incorrect. The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) does not concentrate on it.

Community Answer: ABCE

The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) concentrates on the following principles: Business traceability Architectural best-practices traceability Technological traceability SOA value proposition Software assets reuse SOA integration strategies Technological abstraction and generalization

Question 28

Which of the following are the levels of public or commercial data classification system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Sensitive

B. Private

C. Unclassified

D. Confidential

E. Secret

F. Public

 


Suggested Answer: level of data is considered very sensitive and is intended for internal use only. Disclosure of this level of data can cause serious damage to the company. Answer:

Community Answer: ABDEF

The public or commercial data classification is also built upon a four-level model, which are as follows: Public Sensitive Private Confidential Each level (top to bottom) represents an increasing level of sensitivity. The public level is similar to unclassified level military classification system. This level of data should not cause any damage if disclosed. Sensitive is a higher level of classification than public level data. This level of data requires a greater level of protection to maintain confidentiality. The Private level of data is intended for company use only. Disclosure of this level of data can damage the company. The Confidential
C and E are incorrect. Unclassified and secret are the levels of military data classification.

Question 29

Which of the following security controls will you use for the deployment phase of the SDLC to build secure software? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Change and Configuration Control

B. Security Certification and Accreditation (C&A)

C. Vulnerability Assessment and Penetration Testing

D. Risk Adjustments

 


Suggested Answer: BCD

Community Answer: AC

The various security controls in the SDLC deployment phase are as follows: Secure Installation: While performing any software installation, it should kept in mind that the security configuration of the environment should never be reduced. If it is reduced then security issues and overall risks can affect the environment. Vulnerability Assessment and Penetration Testing: Vulnerability assessments (VA) and penetration testing (PT) is used to determine the risk and attest to the strength of the software after it has been deployed. Security Certification and Accreditation (C&A): Security certification is the process used to ensure controls which are effectively implemented through established verification techniques and procedures, giving organization officials confidence that the appropriate safeguards and countermeasures are in place as means of protection. Accreditation is the provisioning of the necessary security authorization by a senior organization official to process, store, or transmit information.
Risk Adjustments: Contingency plans and exceptions should be generated so that the residual risk be above the acceptable threshold.

Question 30

Which of the following is a name, symbol, or slogan with which a product is identified?

A. Trademark

B. Copyright

C. Trade secret

D. Patent

 


Suggested Answer: others cannot use identical or similar marks. Answer: C is incorrect. A trade secret is a formula, practice, process, design, instrument, pattern, or compilation of

Community Answer: A

A trademark is a name, symbol, or slogan with which a product is identified. Its uniqueness makes the product noticeable among the same type of products. For example, Pentium and Athlon are brand names of the CPUs that are manufactured by Intel and AMD, respectively. The trademark law protects a company’s trademark by making it illegal for other companies to use it without taking prior permission of the trademark owner. A trademark is registered so that information which is not generally known. It helps a business to obtain an economic advantage over its competitors or customers. In some jurisdictions, such holder the exclusive right to produce copies of his or her works of original expression, such as a literary work, movie, musical work or sound recording, painting, photograph, computer program, or industrial design, for a defined, yet extendable, period of time. It does not cover ideas or facts. Copyright laws protect useful machine, process, composition of matter, etc. A patent enables the inventor to legally enforce his right to exclude others from using his invention.

Question 31

Which of the following types of activities can be audited for security? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

A. File and object access

B. Data downloading from the Internet

C. Printer access

D. Network logons and logoffs

 


Suggested Answer: be reviewed periodically. Answer: B is incorrect. Data downloading from the Internet cannot be audited.

Community Answer: ACD

The following types of activities can be audited: Network logons and logoffs File access Printer access Remote access service Application usage
Network services Auditing is used to track user accounts for file and object access, logon attempts, system shutdown, etc. This enhances the security of the network. Before enabling security auditing, the type of event to be audited should be specified in the audit policy. Auditing is an essential component to maintain the security of deployed systems. Security auditing depends on the criticality of the environment and on the company’s security policy. The security system should

Question 32

Which of the following features of SIEM products is used in analysis for identifying potential problems and reviewing all available data that are associated with the problems?

A. Security knowledge base

B. Graphical user interface

C. Asset information storage and correlation

D. Incident tracking and reporting

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: D

SIEM product has a graphical user interface (GUI) which is used in analysis for identifying potential problems and reviewing all available data that are associated with the problems. A graphical user interface (GUI) is a type of user interface that allows people to interact with programs in more ways than typing commands on computers. The term came into existence because the first interactive user interfaces to computers were not graphical; they were text- and- keyboard oriented and usually consisted of commands a user had to remember and computer responses that were infamously brief. A GUI offers graphical icons, and visual indicators, as opposed to text-based interfaces, typed command labels or text navigation to fully represent the information and actions available to a user. The actions are usually performed through direct manipulation of the graphical elements.

Question 33

Which of the following DITSCAP C&A phases takes place between the signing of the initial version of the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system?

A. Phase 4

B. Phase 3

C. Phase 1

D. Phase 2

 


Suggested Answer: requirements during system development. Answer: C, B, and A are incorrect. These phases do not take place between the signing of the initial version of the

Community Answer: D

The Phase 2 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Verification. The goal of this phase is to obtain a fully integrated system for certification testing and accreditation. This phase takes place between the signing of the initial version of the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system. This phase verifies security
SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system.

Question 34

Which of the following programming languages are compiled into machine code and directly executed by the CPU of a computer system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

A. C

B. Microosft.NET

C. Java EE

D. C++

 


Suggested Answer: computer system. Answer: C and B are incorrect. Java EE and Microsoft.Net are compiled into an intermediate code format.

Community Answer: AD

C and C++ programming languages are unmanaged code. Unmanaged code is compiled into machine code and directly executed by the CPU of a

Question 35

An attacker exploits actual code of an application and uses a security hole to carry out an attack before the application vendor knows about the vulnerability.
Which of the following types of attack is this?

A. Replay

B. Zero-day

C. Man-in-the-middle

D. Denial-of-Service

 


Suggested Answer: mitigate such attacks. Answer: A is incorrect. A replay attack is a type of attack in which attackers capture packets containing passwords or digital signatures

Community Answer: B

A zero-day attack, also known as zero-hour attack, is a computer threat that tries to exploit computer application vulnerabilities which are unknown to others, undisclosed to the software vendor, or for which no security fix is available. Zero-day exploits (actual code that can use a security hole to carry out an attack) are used or shared by attackers before the software vendor knows about the vulnerability. User awareness training is the most effective technique to whenever packets pass between two hosts on a network. In an attempt to obtain an authenticated connection, the attackers then resend the captured packet to middle attacks occur when an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary software or program between two communicating hosts. The intermediary software or program allows attackers to listen to and modify the communication packets passing between the two hosts. The software intercepts the communication packets
Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack is mounted with the objective of causing a negative impact on the performance of a computer or network. It is also known as network saturation attack or bandwidth consumption attack. Attackers perform DoS attacks by sending a large number of protocol packets to a network.

Question 36

A Web-based credit card company had collected financial and personal details of Mark before issuing him a credit card. The company has now provided Mark's financial and personal details to another company. Which of the following Internet laws has the credit card issuing company violated?

A. Trademark law

B. Security law

C. Privacy law

D. Copyright law

 


Suggested Answer: financial and personal details to other companies. Answer: A is incorrect. Trademark laws facilitate the protection of trademarks around the world. Answer: B is

Community Answer: C

The credit card issuing company has violated the Privacy law. According to the Internet Privacy law, a company cannot provide their customer’s dramatic, musical, artistic, and certain other intellectual works.

Question 37

Numerous information security standards promote good security practices and define frameworks or systems to structure the analysis and design for managing information security controls. Which of the following are the international information security standards? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.

A. AU audit and accountability

B. Human resources security

C. Organization of information security

D. Risk assessment and treatment

 


Suggested Answer: critical processes and systems Compliance: Ensuring conformance with information security policies, standards, laws, and regulations Answer: A is incorrect. AU

Community Answer: BCD

Following are the various international information security standards:
Risk assessment and treatment: Analysis of the organization’s information security risks Security policy: Management direction Organization of information security: Governance of information security Asset management: Inventory and classification of information assets Human resources security: Security aspects for employees joining, moving, and leaving an organization Physical and environmental security: Protection of the computer facilities Communications and operations management: Management of technical security controls in systems and networks Access control: Restriction of access rights to networks, systems, applications, functions, and data Information systems acquisition, development and maintenance: Building security into applications Information security incident management:
Anticipating and responding appropriately to information security breaches Business continuity management: Protecting, maintaining, and recovering business- audit and accountability is a U.S. Federal Government information security standard.

Question 38

Which of the following ISO standards provides guidelines for accreditation of an organization that is concerned with certification and registration related to ISMS?

A. ISO 27006

B. ISO 27005

C. ISO 27003

D. ISO 27004

 


Suggested Answer: assessment (ISRA) approaches Answer: C is incorrect. The ISO 27003 standard provides guidelines for implementing an ISMS (Information Security

Community Answer: A

ISO 27006 is an information security standard developed by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International
Electrotechnical Commission (IEC). It is entitled as “Information technology – Security techniques – Requirements for bodies providing audit and certification of information security management systems”. The ISO 27006 standard provides guidelines for accreditation of an organization which is concerned with certification and registration related to ISMS. The ISO 27006 standard contains the following elements: Scope Normative references Terms and definitions Principles General requirements Structural requirements Resource requirements Information requirements Process requirements Management system requirements for certification bodies Information security risk communication Information security risk monitoring and review Annex A. Defining the scope of process Annex B. Asset valuation and impact assessment Annex C. Examples of typical threats Annex D. Vulnerabilities and vulnerability assessment methods Annex E. Information security risk provides guidelines for information security risk management.

Question 39

Which of the following technologies is used by hardware manufacturers, publishers, copyright holders and individuals to impose limitations on the usage of digital content and devices?

A. Hypervisor

B. Grid computing

C. Code signing

D. Digital rights management

 


Suggested Answer: serial numbers or keyfiles. It can also refer to restrictions associated with specific instances of digital works or devices. Answer: C is incorrect. Code signing is the

Community Answer: D

Digital rights management (DRM) is an access control technology used by hardware manufacturers, publishers, copyright holders and individuals to impose limitations on the usage of digital content and devices. It describes the technology that prevents the uses of digital content that were not desired or foreseen by the content provider. DRM does not refer to other forms of copy protection which can be circumvented without modifying the file or device, such as process of digitally signing executables and scripts in order to confirm the software author, and guarantee that the code has not been altered or corrupted since it concurrently on a host computer. It is also called the virtual machine monitor (VMM). The hypervisor provides a virtual operating platform to the guest operating
Grid computing refers to the combination of computer resources from multiple administrative domains to achieve a common goal.

Question 40

Which of the following statements about the authentication concept of information security management is true?

A. It establishes the users’ identity and ensures that the users are who they say they are.

B. It ensures the reliable and timely access to resources.

C. It determines the actions and behaviors of a single individual within a system, and identifies that particular individual.

D. It ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes.

 


Suggested Answer: Explanation: The concept of authentication establishes the users’ identity and ensures that the users are who they say they are. Answer: B is incorrect. The

Community Answer: A

individual within a system, and identifies that particular individual.

Question 41

Which of the following methods determines the principle name of the current user and returns the jav a.security.Principal object in the HttpServletRequest interface?

A. getUserPrincipal()

B. isUserInRole()

C. getRemoteUser()

D. getCallerPrincipal()

 


Suggested Answer: java.security.Principal object contains the remote user name. The value of the getUserPrincipal() method returns null if no user is authenticated. Answer: C is

Community Answer: A

The getUserPrincipal() method determines the principle name of the current user and returns the java.security.Principal object. The incorrect. The getRemoteUser() method returns the user name that is used for the client authentication. The value of the getRemoteUser() method returns null if method is used to identify a caller using a java.security.Principal object. It is not used in the HttpServletRequest interface.

Question 42

You are the project manager of the CUL project in your organization. You and the project team are assessing the risk events and creating a probability and impact matrix for the identified risks. Which one of the following statements best describes the requirements for the data type used in qualitative risk analysis?

A. A qualitative risk analysis encourages biased data to reveal risk tolerances.

B. A qualitative risk analysis required unbiased stakeholders with biased risk tolerances.

C. A qualitative risk analysis requires accurate and unbiased data if it is to be credible.

D. A qualitative risk analysis requires fast and simple data to complete the analysis.

 


Suggested Answer: Explanation: Of all the choices only this answer is accurate. The PMBOK clearly states that the data must be accurate and unbiased to be credible. Answer: D is

Community Answer: C

 

Question 43

Which of the following testing methods verifies the interfaces between components against a software design?

A. Regression testing

B. Integration testing

C. Black-box testing

D. Unit testing

 


Suggested Answer: Answer: A is incorrect. Regression testing focuses on finding defects after a major code change has occurred. Specifically, it seeks to uncover software

Community Answer: B

Integration testing is a software testing that seeks to verify the interfaces between components against a software design. Software components may be integrated in an iterative way or all together (“big bang”). Normally the former is considered a better practice since it allows interface issues to be localized more quickly and fixed. Integration testing works to expose defects in the interfaces and interaction between the integrated components (modules). Progressively larger groups of tested software components corresponding to elements of the architectural design are integrated and tested until the software works as a system. regressions, or old bugs that have come back. Such regressions occur whenever software functionality that was previously working correctly stops working as intended. Typically, regressions occur as an unintended consequence of program changes, when the newly developed part of the software collides with the an object-oriented environment, this is usually at the class level, and the minimal unit tests include the constructors and destructors. These types of tests are usually written by developers as they work on code (white-box style), to ensure that the specific function is working as expected. One function might have multiple tests, to catch corner cases or other branches in the code. Unit testing alone cannot verify the functionality of a piece of software, but rather is used to assure that including specifications, requirements, and design to derive test cases. These tests can be functional or non-functional, though usually functional. The test designer selects valid and invalid inputs and determines the correct output. There is no knowledge of the test object’s internal structure. This method of test design is applicable to all levels of software testing: unit, integration, functional testing, system and acceptance. The higher the level, and hence the bigger and more complex the box, the more one is forced to use black box testing to simplify. While this method can uncover unimplemented parts of the specification, one cannot be sure that all existent paths are tested.

Question 44

You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis. Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative risk analysis is?

A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.

B. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highest impact on the project objectives.

C. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on probability and impact of each risk event.

D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.

 


Suggested Answer: have been prioritized through the qualitative risk analysis process. Answer: A is incorrect. This is actually the definition of qualitative risk analysis. Answer: B is

Community Answer: D

Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. It is performed on risk that statement about the quantitative risk analysis process. Risk response planning is a separate project management process.

Question 45

Della works as a security engineer for BlueWell Inc. She wants to establish configuration management and control procedures that will document proposed or actual changes to the information system. Which of the following phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A methodology will define the above task?

A. Initiation

B. Security Certification

C. Continuous Monitoring

D. Security Accreditation

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

The various phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A are as follows:
Phase 1: Initiation- This phase includes preparation, notification and resource identification. It performs the security plan analysis, update, and acceptance. Phase
2: Security Certification- The Security certification phase evaluates the controls and documentation. Phase 3: Security Accreditation- The security accreditation phase examines the residual risk for acceptability, and prepares the final security accreditation package. Phase 4: Continuous Monitoring-This phase monitors the configuration management and control, ongoing security control verification, and status reporting and documentation.

Question 46

Which of the following is a variant with regard to Configuration Management?

A. A CI that has the same name as another CI but shares no relationship.

B. A CI that particularly refers to a software version.

C. A CI that has the same essential functionality as another CI but a bit different in some small manner.

D. A CI that particularly refers to a hardware specification.

 


Suggested Answer: is the relationship among hardware items, software, and users. Answer: B, D, and A are incorrect. These are incorrect definitions of a variant with regard to

Community Answer: C

A CI that has the same essential functionality as another CI but a bit different in some small manner, and therefore, might be required to be analyzed along with its generic group. A Configuration item (CI) is an IT asset or a combination of IT assets that may depend and have relationships with other IT processes. A CI will have attributes which may be hierarchical and relationships that will be assigned by the configuration manager in the CM database. The
Configuration Item (CI) attributes are as follows: 1.Technical: It is data that describes the CI’s capabilities which include software version and model numbers, hardware and manufacturer specifications, and other technical details like networking speeds, and data storage size. Keyboards, mice and cables are considered consumables. 2.Ownership: It is part of financial asset management, ownership attributes, warranty, location, and responsible person for the CI. 3.Relationship: It
Configuration Management.

Question 47

Which of the following is a malicious exploit of a website, whereby unauthorized commands are transmitted from a user trusted by the website?

A. Cross-Site Scripting

B. Injection flaw

C. Side channel attack

D. Cross-Site Request Forgery

 


Suggested Answer: unauthorized action. It increases data loss and malicious code execution. Answer: A is incorrect. Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a type of computer security

Community Answer: D

CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery) is a malicious exploit of a website, whereby unauthorized commands are transmitted from a user trusted by the website. It is also known as a one-click attack or session riding. CSRF occurs when a user is tricked by an attacker into activating a request in order to perform some vulnerability typically found in web applications which enable malicious attackers to inject client-side script into web pages viewed by other users. An exploited cross-site scripting vulnerability can be used by attackers to bypass access controls, such as the same origin policy. Cross-site scripting carried out on websites were roughly 80% of all security vulnerabilities documented by Symantec as of 2007. Their impact may range from a petty nuisance to a significant security risk, incorrect. A side channel attack is based on information gained from the physical implementation of a cryptosystem, rather than brute force or theoretical weaknesses in the algorithms (compare cryptanalysis). For example, timing information, power consumption, electromagnetic leaks or even sound can provide an extra source of information which can be exploited to break the system. Many side- channel attacks require considerable technical knowledge of the internal uses a sub-system. They are the vulnerability holes that can be used to attack a database of Web applications. It is the most common technique of attacking a database. Injection occurs when user-supplied data is sent to an interpreter as part of a command or query. The attacker’s hostile data tricks the interpreter into executing involuntary commands or changing data. Injection flaws include XSS (HTML Injection) and SQL Injection.

Question 48

In which of the following types of tests are the disaster recovery checklists distributed to the members of disaster recovery team and asked to review the assigned checklist?

A. Parallel test

B. Simulation test

C. Full-interruption test

D. Checklist test

 


Suggested Answer: disaster recovery team are still working for the organization. Answer: B is incorrect. A simulation test is a method used to test the disaster recovery plans. It

Community Answer: D

A checklist test is a test in which the disaster recovery checklists are distributed to the members of the disaster recovery team. All members are asked to review the assigned checklist. The checklist test is a simple test and it is easy to conduct this test. It allows to accomplish the following three goals: It ensures that the employees are aware of their responsibilities and they have the refreshed knowledge. It provides an individual with an opportunity to review the checklists for obsolete information and update any items that require modification during the changes in the organization. It ensures that the assigned members of operates just like a structured walk- through test. In the simulation test, the members of a disaster recovery team present with a disaster scenario and then, discuss on appropriate responses. These suggested responses are measured and some of them are taken by the team. The range of the simulation test should procedure, and relocates the employees to an alternate recovery site and implements site activation procedures. These employees present with their disaster recovery responsibilities as they would for an actual disaster. The disaster recovery sites have full responsibilities to conduct the day-to-day organization’s the disaster recovery plan. It operates just like a parallel test. The full-interruption test is very expensive and difficult to arrange. Sometimes, it causes a major disruption of operations if the test fails.

Question 49

Adam works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for a garment company in the United States. A project has been assigned to him to investigate a case of a disloyal employee who is suspected of stealing design of the garments, which belongs to the company and selling those garments of the same design under different brand name. Adam investigated that the company does not have any policy related to the copy of design of the garments. He also investigated that the trademark under which the employee is selling the garments is almost identical to the original trademark of the company. On the grounds of which of the following laws can the employee be prosecuted?

A. Espionage law

B. Trademark law

C. Cyber law

D. Copyright law

 


Suggested Answer: restrict an infringing use. Failure to “police” a mark by stopping infringing uses can result in the loss of protection. Answer: D is incorrect. Copyright law of the

Community Answer: B

The Trademark law is a piece of legislation that contains the federal statutes of trademark law in the United States. The Act prohibits a number of activities, including trademark infringement, trademark dilution, and false advertising. Trademarks were traditionally protected in the United States only under State common law, growing out of the tort of unfair competition. Trademark law in the United States is almost entirely enforced through private lawsuits. The exception is in the case of criminal counterfeiting of goods. Otherwise, the responsibility is entirely on the mark owner to file suit in either state or federal civil court in order to
United States governs the legally enforceable rights of creative and artistic works under the laws of the United States. Copyright law in the United States is part of federal law, and is authorized by the U.S. Constitution. The power to enact copyright law is granted in Article I, Section 8, Clause 8, also known as the Copyright
Clause. This clause forms the basis for U.S. copyright law (“Science”, “Authors”, “Writings”) and patent law (“useful Arts”, “Inventors”, “Discoveries”), and includes the limited terms (or durations) allowed for copyrights and patents (“limited Times”), as well as the items they may protect. In the U.S., registrations of claims of copyright, recordation of copyright transfers, and other administrative aspects of copyright are the responsibility of the United States Copyright Office, a part of the
1917, which made it a crime for a person: To convey information with intent to interfere with the operation or success of the armed forces of the United States or to promote the success of its enemies. This was punishable by death or by imprisonment for not more than 30 years. To convey false reports or false statements with intent to interfere with the operation or success of the military or naval forces of the United States or to promote the success of its enemies and whoever when the United States is at war, to cause or attempt to cause insubordination, disloyalty, mutiny, refusal of duty, in the military or naval forces of the United States, or to related to the use of communicative, transactional and distributive aspect of networked information device and technologies. It is commonly known as INTERNET
LAW. These Laws are important to apply as Internet does not tend to make any geographical and jurisdictional boundaries clear; this is the reason why Cyber law is not very efficient. A single transaction may involve the laws of at least three jurisdictions, which are as follows: 1.The laws of the state/nation in which the user resides 2.The laws of the state/nation that apply where the server hosting the transaction is located 3.The laws of the state/nation, which apply to the person or business with whom the transaction takes place

Question 50

Which of the following federal agencies has the objective to develop and promote measurement, standards, and technology to enhance productivity, facilitate trade, and improve the quality of life?

A. National Security Agency (NSA)

B. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)

C. United States Congress

D. Committee on National Security Systems (CNSS)

 


Suggested Answer: improve quality of life. Answer: D is incorrect. The Committee on National Security Systems (CNSS) is a United States intergovernmental organization that sets

Community Answer: B

The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), known between 1901 and 1988 as the National Bureau of Standards (NBS), is a measurement standards laboratory which is a non-regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce. The institute’s official mission is to promote
U.S. innovation and industrial competitiveness by advancing measurement science, standards, and technology in ways that enhance economic security and policy for the security of the US security systems. The CNSS holds discussions of policy issues, sets national policy, directions, operational procedures, and guidance for the information systems operated by the U.S. Government, its contractors, or agents that contain classified information, involve intelligence activities,
The National Security Agency/Central Security Service (NSA/CSS) is a crypto-logic intelligence agency of the United States government. It is administered as part of the United States Department of Defense. NSA is responsible for the collection and analysis of foreign communications and foreign signals intelligence, which involves cryptanalysis. NSA is also responsible for protecting U.S. government communications and information systems from similar agencies elsewhere, which involves cryptography. NSA is a key component of the U.S. Intelligence Community, which is headed by the Director of National Intelligence. The Central Security
Service is a co-located agency created to coordinate intelligence activities and co-operation between NSA and U.S. military cryptanalysis agencies. NSA’s work is bicameral legislature of the federal government of the United States of America. It consists of the Senate and the House of Representatives. The Congress meets in the United States Capitol in Washington, D.C. Both senators and representatives are chosen through direct election. Each of the 435 members of the House of
Representatives represents a district and serves a two-year term. House seats are apportioned among the states by population. The 100 Senators serve staggered six-year terms. Each state has two senators, regardless of population. Every two years, approximately one-third of the Senate is elected at a time. The
United States Congress main function is to make laws. The Office of the Law Revision Counsel organizes and publishes the United States Code (USC). It is a consolidation and codification by subject matter of the general and permanent laws of the United States.

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