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CRISC Practice Exam Free

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  • CRISC Practice Exam Free – 50 Questions to Simulate the Real Exam
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CRISC Practice Exam Free – 50 Questions to Simulate the Real Exam

Are you getting ready for the CRISC certification? Take your preparation to the next level with our CRISC Practice Exam Free – a carefully designed set of 50 realistic exam-style questions to help you evaluate your knowledge and boost your confidence.

Using a CRISC practice exam free is one of the best ways to:

  • Experience the format and difficulty of the real exam
  • Identify your strengths and focus on weak areas
  • Improve your test-taking speed and accuracy

Below, you will find 50 realistic CRISC practice exam free questions covering key exam topics. Each question reflects the structure and challenge of the actual exam.

Question 1

During a risk assessment, a key external technology supplier refuses to provide control design and effectiveness information, citing confidentiality concerns. What should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

A. Escalate the non-cooperation to management

B. Exclude applicable controls from the assessment

C. Review the supplier’s contractual obligations

D. Request risk acceptance from the business process owner

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 2

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that robust risk management practices are in place within an organization?

A. A management-approved risk dashboard

B. A current control framework

C. A regularly updated risk register

D. Regularly updated risk management procedures

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 3

Which of the following is the MOST important concern when assigning multiple risk owners for an identified risk?

A. Risk ratings may be inconsistently applied.

B. Accountability may not be clearly defined.

C. Different risk taxonomies may be used.

D. Mitigation efforts may be duplicated.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 4

You are the project manager for TTP project. You are in the Identify Risks process. You have to create the risk register. Which of the following are included in the risk register?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)

A. List of potential responses

B. List of key stakeholders

C. List of mitigation techniques

D. List of identified risks

 


Suggested Answer: AD

Risk register primarily contains the following:
✑ List of identified risks: A reasonable description of the identified risks is noted in the risk register. The description includes event, cause, effect, impact related to the risks identified. In addition to the list of identified risks, the root causes of those risks may appear in the risk register.
✑ List of potential responses: Potential responses to a risk may be identified during the Identify Risks process. These responses are useful as inputs to the Plan
Risk Responses process.
Incorrect Answers:
B: This is not a valid content of risk register.
A risk register is an inventory of risks and exposure associated with those risks. Risks are commonly found in project management practices, and provide information to identify, analyze, and manage risks. Typically a risk register contains:
✑ A description of the risk
✑ The impact should this event actually occur
✑ The probability of its occurrence
✑ Risk Score (the multiplication of Probability and Impact)
✑ A summary of the planned response should the event occur
✑ A summary of the mitigation (the actions taken in advance to reduce the probability and/or impact of the event)
✑ Ranking of risks by Risk Score so as to highlight the highest priority risks to all involved.
C: Risk register do contain the summary of mitigation, but only after the applying risk response. Here in this scenario you are in risk identification phase, hence mitigation techniques cannot be documented at this situation.

 

Question 5

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for a server patch management process?

A. The number of servers with local credentials to install patches

B. The number of servers running the software patching service

C. The percentage of servers patched within required service level agreements

D. The percentage of servers with allowed patching exceptions

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 6

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring adherence to an organization's user accounts provisioning practices is the percentage of:

A. active accounts belonging to former personnel.

B. accounts with dormant activity.

C. accounts without documented approval.

D. user accounts with default passwords.

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 7

The MAIN reason for prioritizing IT risk responses is to enable an organization to:

A. determine the risk appetite.

B. determine the budget.

C. define key performance indicators (KPIs).

D. optimize resource utilization.

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 8

Which of the following would be MOST useful to management when allocating resources to mitigate risk to the organization?

A. Risk-based audits

B. Control self-assessments (CSAs)

C. Risk assessments

D. Vulnerability analysis

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 9

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to understand the impact of a new technology system on an organization's current risk profile?

A. Conduct a gap analysis

B. Review existing risk mitigation controls

C. Perform a risk assessment

D. Hire consultants specializing in the new technology

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 10

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with an environment that lacks documentation of the architecture?

A. Network isolation

B. Overlapping threats

C. Unknown vulnerabilities

D. Legacy technology systems

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 11

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to help ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile?

A. Conduct cyber risk awareness training tailored specifically for senior management

B. Implement a cyber risk program based on industry best practices

C. Manage cyber risk according to the organization’s risk management framework

D. Define cyber roles and responsibilities across the organization

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 12

A recent change in accounting policy has the potential to impact a known risk related to an organization's financial software. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A. Analyze and update the risk register as needed.

B. Conduct software testing for required code updates.

C. Analyze and update associated control assessments.

D. Determine whether the risk response is still adequate.

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 13

A hospital's Internet of Things (IoT) bio-medical devices were recently hacked. Which of the following methods would BEST assist in identifying the control deficiencies?

A. SWOT analysis

B. Countermeasure analysis

C. Business impact analysis (BIA)

D. Gap analysis

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 14

Mary is the project manager for the BLB project. She has instructed the project team to assemble, to review the risks. She has included the schedule management plan as an input for the quantitative risk analysis process. Why is the schedule management plan needed for quantitative risk analysis?

A. Mary will schedule when the identified risks are likely to happen and affect the project schedule.

B. Mary will utilize the schedule controls and the nature of the schedule for the quantitative analysis of the schedule.

C. Mary will use the schedule management plan to schedule the risk identification meetings throughout the remaining project.

D. Mary will utilize the schedule controls to determine how risks may be allowed to change the project schedule.

 


Suggested Answer: B

The controls within the schedule management plan can shape how quantitative risk analysis will be performed on the schedule.
Schedule management plan also describes how the schedule contingencies will be reported and assessed.
Incorrect Answers:
A: When risks are likely to happen is important, but it is not the best answer for this question
C: This is not a valid answer for this question throughout the project, but it is not scheduled during the quantitative risk analysis process.
D: Risks may affect the project schedule, but this is not the best answer for the question.

 

Question 15

An organization practices the principle of least privilege. To ensure access remains appropriate, application owners should be required to review user access rights on a regular basis by obtaining:

A. security logs to determine the cause of invalid login attempts.

B. documentation indicating the intended users of the application.

C. an access control matrix and approval from the user’s manager.

D. business purpose documentation and software license counts.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 16

Which of the following is MOST important to promoting a risk-aware culture?

A. Communication of audit findings

B. Open communication of risk reporting

C. Procedures for security monitoring

D. Regular testing of risk controls

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 17

When formulating a social media policy to address information leakage, which of the following is the MOST important concern to address?

A. Using social media to maintain contact with business associates

B. Using social media for personal purposes during working hours

C. Sharing company information on social media

D. Sharing personal information on social media

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 18

Which of the following is the MOST important action for a risk practitioner when a recovery test indicates control gaps?

A. Verify test specifications.

B. Review the recovery test report.

C. Perform a root cause analysis.

D. Develop an action plan.

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 19

You are the project manager of GHT project. You want to perform post-project review of your project. What is the BEST time to perform post-project review by you and your project development team to access the effectiveness of the project?

A. Project is completed and the system has been in production for a sufficient time period

B. During the project

C. Immediately after the completion of the project

D. Project is about to complete

 


Suggested Answer: A

The project development team and appropriate end users perform a post-project review jointly after the project has been completed and the system has been in production for a sufficient time period to assess its effectiveness.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The post-project review of project for accessing effectiveness cannot be done during the project as effectiveness can only evaluated after setting the project in process of production.
C: It is not done immediately after the completion of the project as its effectiveness cannot be measured until the system has been in production for certain time period.
D: Post-project review for evaluating the effectiveness of the project can only be done after the completion of the project and the project is in production phase.

 

Question 20

To define the risk management strategy, which of the following MUST be set by the board of directors?

A. Risk governance

B. Annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

C. Risk appetite

D. Operational strategies

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 21

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action to foster an ethical, risk-aware culture?

A. Establish an enterprise-wide ethics training and awareness program.

B. Ensure the alignment of the organization’s policies and standards to the defined risk appetite.

C. Implement a fraud detection and prevention framework.

D. Perform a comprehensive review of all applicable legislative frameworks and requirements.

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 22

A risk practitioner discovers that a data center's air conditioning system cannot provide sufficient cooling. What else is MOST important to consider when predicting the probability of adverse business impact from this issue?

A. Maintenance history

B. Compensating controls

C. Replacement cost

D. Applicable threats

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 23

Which of the following is a technique that provides a systematic description of the combination of unwanted occurrences in a system?

A. Sensitivity analysis

B. Scenario analysis

C. Fault tree analysis

D. Cause and effect analysis

 


Suggested Answer: C

Fault tree analysis (FIA) is a technique that provides a systematic description of the combination of possible occurrences in a system, which can result in an undesirable outcome. It combines hardware failures and human failures.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Sensitivity analysis is the quantitative risk analysis technique that:
Assist in determination of risk factors that have the most potential impact Examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each element affects the object under consideration when all other uncertain elements are held at their baseline values
B: This analysis provides ability to see a range of values across several scenarios to identify risk in specific situation. It provides ability to identify those inputs which will provide the greatest level of uncertainty.
D: Cause-and-effect analysis involves the use of predictive or diagnostic analytical tool for exploring the root causes or factors that contribute to positive or negative effects or outcomes. These tools also help in identifying potential risk.

 

Question 24

A risk practitioner notices a risk scenario associated with data loss at the organization's cloud provider is assigned to the provider. Who should the risk scenario be reassigned to?

A. Chief risk officer

B. Vendor manager

C. Data owner

D. Senior management

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 25

Which of the following is MOST likely to introduce risk for financial institutions that use blockchain?

A. Disruption to business processes

B. Cost of implementation

C. Implementation of unproven applications

D. Increase in attack surface area

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 26

What should be PRIMARILY responsible for establishing an organization's IT risk culture?

A. Risk management

B. IT management

C. Business process owner

D. Executive management

 


Suggested Answer: D

Reference:
https://www.casact.org/education/infocus/2014/handouts/Paper_3464_handout_2190_0.pdf

<img src=”https://www.examtopics.com/assets/media/exam-media/04284/0028600001.png” alt=”Reference Image” />

 

Question 27

Which of the following business requirements MOST relates to the need for resilient business and information systems processes?

A. Confidentiality

B. Effectiveness

C. Integrity

D. Availability

 


Suggested Answer: D

Availability relates to information being available when required by the business process in present as well as in future. Resilience is the ability to provide and maintain an acceptable level of service during disasters or when facing operational challenges. Hence they are most closely related.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Integrity relates to the accuracy and completeness of information as well as to its validity in accordance with business values and expectations. While the lack of system resilience can in some cases affect data integrity, resilience is more closely linked to the business information requirement of availability.
B: Confidentiality deals with the protection of sensitive information from unauthorized disclosure. While the lack of system resilience can in some cases affect data confidentiality, resilience is more closely linked to the business information requirement of availability.
C: Effectiveness deals with information being relevant and pertinent to the business process as well as being delivered in a timely, correct, consistent and usable manner. While the lack of system resilience can in some cases affect effectiveness, resilience is more closely linked to the business information requirement of availability.

 

Question 28

Which of the following is MOST important for senior management to review during an acquisition?

A. Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

B. Risk framework and methodology

C. Risk communication plan

D. Risk appetite and tolerance

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 29

Malware has recently affected an organization. The MOST effective way to resolve this situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan would be to perform:

A. a vulnerability assessment.

B. a root cause analysis.

C. an impact assessment.

D. a gap analysis.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 30

Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization’s patch management process?

A. Number of patches tested prior to deployment

B. Average time to implement patches after vendor release

C. Percent of patches implemented within established timeframe

D. Increase in the frequency of patches deployed into production

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 31

An organization has established a policy prohibiting ransom payments if subjected to a ransomware attack. Which of the following is the MOST effective control to support this policy?

A. Implementing continuous intrusion detection monitoring

B. Creating immutable backups

C. Conducting periodic vulnerability scanning

D. Performing required patching

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 32

An organization implements a risk avoidance approach to collecting personal information. Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to validate the risk response?

A. Verify security baselines are implemented for databases.

B. Perform a scan for personal information.

C. Confirm that personal information is encrypted.

D. Review the privacy policy to confirm it is up to date.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 33

Establishing an organizational code of conduct is an example of which type of control?

A. Directive

B. Preventive

C. Detective

D. Compensating

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 34

Which of the following are parts of SWOT Analysis?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose four.)

A. Weaknesses

B. Tools

C. Threats

D. Opportunities

E. Strengths

 


Suggested Answer: ACDE

SWOT analysis is a strategic planning method used to evaluate the Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats involved in a project or in a business venture. It involves specifying the objective of the business venture or project and identifying the internal and external factors that are favorable and unfavorable to achieving that objective. The technique is credited to Albert Humphrey, who led a research project at Stanford University in the 1960s and 1970s using data from
Fortune 500 companies.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Tools are not the parts of SWOT analysis.

 

Question 35

As part of software development projects, risk assessments are MOST effective when performed:

A. throughout the system development life cycle (SDLC).

B. before the decision is made to develop or acquire the software.

C. during system deployment and maintenance.

D. before developing the project charter for the software.

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 36

An organization recently experienced a cyber attack that resulted in the loss of confidential customer data. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation after recovery steps have been completed?

A. Review the incident response plan

B. Perform a root cause analysis

C. Develop new key risk indicators (KRIs)

D. Recommend the purchase of cyber insurance

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 37

You are the project manager of the NNN Project. Stakeholders in the two-year project have requested to send status reports to them via. email every week. You have agreed and send reports every Thursday. After six months of the project, the stakeholders are pleased with the project progress and they would like you to reduce the status reports to every two weeks. What process will examine the change to this project process and implement it in the project?

A. Configuration management

B. Communications management

C. Perform integrated change control process

D. Project change control process

 


Suggested Answer: C

Although this appears to be a simple change the project manager must still follow the rules of the project’s change control system.
Integrated change control is a way to manage the changes incurred during a project. It is a method that manages reviewing the suggestions for changes and utilizing the tools and techniques to evaluate whether the change should be approved or rejected. Integrated change control is a primary component of the project’s change control system that examines the affect of a proposed change on the entire project.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Configuration management is the documentation and control of the product’s features and functions.
B: Communications management is the execution of the communications management plan.
D: The project change control process not valid as it’s the parent of the integrated change control process, which is more accurate for this question.

 

Question 38

You are the project manager for the NHH project. You are working with your project team to examine the project from four different defined perspectives to increase the breadth of identified risks by including internally generated risks. What risk identification approach are you using in this example?

A. Root cause analysis

B. Influence diagramming techniques

C. SWOT analysis

D. Assumptions analysis

 


Suggested Answer: C

This is an example of SWOT analysis. SWOT analysis examines the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats within the project and generated from within the organization.
SWOT stands for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats. It is a part of business policy that helps an individual or a company to make decisions. It includes the strategies to build the strength of a company and use the opportunities to make the company successful. It also includes the strategies to overcome the weaknesses of and threats to the company.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Root cause analysis examines causal factors for events within the project.
B: Influence diagramming techniques examines the relationships between things and events within the project.
D: Assumptions analysis does not use four pre-defined perspectives for review.

 

Question 39

A risk practitioner is assisting with the preparation of a report on the organization's disaster recovery (DR) capabilities. Which information would have the MOST impact on the overall recovery profile?

A. The percentage of systems meeting recovery target times has increased

B. The number of systems requiring a recovery plan has increased

C. The number of systems tested in the last year has increased

D. The percentage of systems with long recovery target times has decreased

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 40

Which of the following approaches would BEST help to identify relevant risk scenarios?

A. Engage line management in risk assessment workshops

B. Escalate the situation to risk leadership

C. Engage internal audit for risk assessment workshops

D. Review system and process documentation

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 41

Which of the following is the responsibility of the second line of defense?

A. Auditing compliance with corporate risk policies and standards

B. Approving enterprise risk appetite thresholds

C. Providing oversight of the organization’s financial statements

D. Monitoring the result of actions taken to mitigate risk

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 42

Which of the following would be the BEST way to proactively identify changes in organizational risk levels?

A. Develop risk scenarios

B. Conduct compliance reviews

C. Monitor key risk indicators (KRIs)

D. Perform business impact analyses

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 43

Which of the following is a risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation upon learning that an employee inadvertently disclosed sensitive data to a vendor?

A. Enroll the employee in additional security training.

B. Invoke the incident response plan.

C. Conduct an internal audit.

D. Instruct the vendor to delete the data.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 44

You are the project manager of the NHH Project. You are working with the project team to create a plan to document the procedures to manage risks throughout the project. This document will define how risks will be identified and quantified. It will also define how contingency plans will be implemented by the project team.
What document do you and your team is creating in this scenario?

A. Project plan

B. Resource management plan

C. Project management plan

D. Risk management plan

 


Suggested Answer: D

The risk management plan, part of the comprehensive management plan, defines how risks will be identified, analyzed, monitored and controlled, and even responded to.
A Risk management plan is a document arranged by a project manager to estimate the effectiveness, predict risks, and build response plans to mitigate them. It also consists of the risk assessment matrix.
Risks are built in with any project, and project managers evaluate risks repeatedly and build plans to address them. The risk management plan consists of analysis of possible risks with both high and low impacts, and the mitigation strategies to facilitate the project and avoid being derailed through which the common problems arise. Risk management plans should be timely reviewed by the project team in order to avoid having the analysis become stale and not reflective of actual potential project risks. Most critically, risk management plans include a risk strategy for project execution.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The project plan is not an official PMBOK project management plan.
B: The resource management plan defines the management of project resources, such as project team members, facilities, equipment, and contractors.
C: The project management plan is a comprehensive plan that communicates the intent of the project for all project management knowledge areas.

 

Question 45

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis?

A. Change log review

B. User recertification

C. Access log monitoring

D. User authorization

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 46

Which of the following is a detective control?

A. Limit check

B. Access control software

C. Periodic access review

D. Rerun procedures

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 47

The MOST important reason for implementing change control procedures is to ensure:

A. an audit trail exists.

B. timely evaluation of change events.

C. that emergency changes are logged.

D. only approved changes are implemented.

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 48

Continuous monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs) will:

A. ensure that risk tolerance and risk appetite are aligned.

B. provide an early warning so that proactive action can be taken.

C. ensure that risk will not exceed the defined risk appetite of the organization.

D. provide a snapshot of the risk profile.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 49

Sammy is the project manager for her organization. She would like to rate each risk based on its probability and affect on time, cost, and scope. Harry, a project team member, has never done this before and thinks Sammy is wrong to attempt this approach. Harry says that an accumulative risk score should be created, not three separate risk scores. Who is correct in this scenario?

A. Sammy is correct, because she is the project manager.

B. Sammy is correct, because organizations can create risk scores for each objective of the project.

C. Harry is correct, the risk probability and impact matrix is the only approach to risk assessment.

D. Harry is correct, because the risk probability and impact considers all objectives of the project.

 


Suggested Answer: B

Sammy She certainly can create an assessment for a risk event for time cost, and scope. It is probable that a risk event may have an effect on just one or more objectives so an assessment of the objective is acceptable.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Just because Sammy is the project manager, it is not necessary that she is right.
C: Harry is incorrect as there are multiple approaches to risk assessment for a project
D: Harry’s reasoning is flawed as each objective can be reviewed for the risk’s impact rather than the total project.

 

Question 50

Which of the following is MOST critical to the design of relevant risk scenarios?

A. The scenarios are linked to probable organizational situations.

B. The scenarios are based on past incidents.

C. The scenarios are aligned with risk management capabilities.

D. The scenarios are mapped to incident management capabilities.

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

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