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CRISC Dump Free

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  • CRISC Dump Free – 50 Practice Questions to Sharpen Your Exam Readiness.
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CRISC Dump Free – 50 Practice Questions to Sharpen Your Exam Readiness.

Looking for a reliable way to prepare for your CRISC certification? Our CRISC Dump Free includes 50 exam-style practice questions designed to reflect real test scenarios—helping you study smarter and pass with confidence.

Using an CRISC dump free set of questions can give you an edge in your exam prep by helping you:

  • Understand the format and types of questions you’ll face
  • Pinpoint weak areas and focus your study efforts
  • Boost your confidence with realistic question practice

Below, you will find 50 free questions from our CRISC Dump Free collection. These cover key topics and are structured to simulate the difficulty level of the real exam, making them a valuable tool for review or final prep.

Question 1

Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization's change management process?

A. Average time to complete changes

B. Increase in the number of emergency changes

C. Percent of unauthorized changes

D. Increase in the frequency of changes

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 2

Which of the following techniques would be used during a risk assessment to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated?

A. Control chart

B. Trend analysis

C. Sensitivity analysis

D. Decision tree

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 3

A risk practitioner has become aware of production data being used in a test environment. Which of the following should be the practitioner's PRIMARY concern?

A. Security of the test environment.

B. Readability of test data.

C. Sensitivity of the data.

D. Availability of data to authorized staff.

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 4

A control owner has decided to implement a compensating control instead of the control selected in the risk action plan. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action after reassessing the risk?

A. Notify senior management of the control owner’s decision.

B. Seek approval of the change from the risk owner.

C. Update control ownership in the risk register.

D. Update policies relevant to the risk.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 5

A vulnerability assessment of a vendor-supplied solution has revealed that the software is susceptible to cross-site scripting and SQL injection attacks. Which of the following will BEST mitigate this issue?

A. Require the software vendor to remediate the vulnerabilities.

B. Approve exception to allow the software to continue operating.

C. Monitor the databases for abnormal activity.

D. Accept the risk and let the vendor run the software as is.

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 6

Which of the following control detects problem before it can occur?

A. Deterrent control

B. Detective control

C. Compensation control

D. Preventative control

 


Suggested Answer: D

Preventative controls are the controls that detect the problem before it occurs. They attempt to predict potential problems and make adjustments to prevent those problems to occur in near future. This prediction is being made by monitoring both the system’s operations and its inputs.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Deterrent controls are similar to the preventative controls, but they diminish or reverse the attraction of the environment to prevent risk from occurring instead of making adjustments to the environment.
B: Detective controls simply detect and report on the occurrence of a problems. They identify specific symptoms to potential problems.
C: Compensation controls ensure that normal business operations continue by applying appropriate resource.

 

Question 7

Which of the following is the MOST useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management process?

A. Average time to provision user accounts

B. Password reset volume per month

C. Number of tickers for provisioning new accounts

D. Average account lockout time

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 8

An organization striving to be on the leading edge in regard to risk monitoring would MOST likely implement:

A. a tool for monitoring critical activities and controls

B. procedures to monitor the operation of controls

C. real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions

D. monitoring activities for all critical assets.

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 9

Reviewing historical risk events is MOST useful for which of the following processes within the risk management life cycle?

A. Risk mitigation

B. Risk assessment

C. Risk monitoring

D. Risk aggregation

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 10

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the ongoing effectiveness of a risk awareness training program is the percentage of staff members who have:

A. passed subsequent random testing.

B. passed the training session test.

C. attended annual training.

D. accessed online training materials.

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 11

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of reviewing the risk management process?

A. Improving the competencies of employees who performed the review

B. Assuring the risk profile supports the IT objectives

C. Determining what changes should be made to IS policies to reduce risk

D. Determining that procedures used in risk assessment are appropriate

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 12

The MOST effective approach to prioritize risk scenarios is by:

A. assessing impact to the strategic plan

B. soliciting input from risk management experts

C. aligning with industry best practices

D. evaluating the cost of risk response

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 13

Which of the following is MOST important to review when determining whether a potential IT service provider's control environment is effective?

A. Control self-assessment (CSA)

B. Service level agreements (SLAs)

C. Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D. Independent audit report

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 14

You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. Your project has several risks that will affect several stakeholder requirements. Which project management plan will define who will be available to share information on the project risks?

A. Risk Management Plan

B. Stakeholder management strategy

C. Communications Management Plan

D. Resource Management Plan

 


Suggested Answer: C

The Communications Management Plan defines, in regard to risk management, who will be available to share information on risks and responses throughout the project.
The Communications Management Plan aims to define the communication necessities for the project and how the information will be circulated. The
Communications Management Plan sets the communication structure for the project. This structure provides guidance for communication throughout the project’s life and is updated as communication needs change. The Communication Managements Plan identifies and defines the roles of persons concerned with the project. It includes a matrix known as the communication matrix to map the communication requirements of the project.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Risk Management Plan defines risk identification, analysis, response, and monitoring.
B: The stakeholder management strategy does not address risk communications.
D: The Resource Management Plan does not define risk communications.

 

Question 15

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to test new controls?

A. To verify controls work as intended.

B. To justify the cost of control investment.

C. To identify exceptions that elevate risk.

D. To ensure an accurate and up-to-date controls register.

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 16

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the ability to deliver uninterrupted IT services?

A. Mean time to recover (MTTR)

B. Mean time between failures (MTBF)

C. Planned downtime

D. Unplanned downtime

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 17

The PRIMARY purpose of IT control status reporting is to:

A. assist internal audit in evaluating and initiating remediation efforts.

B. ensure compliance with IT governance strategy.

C. facilitate the comparison of the current and desired states.

D. benchmark IT controls with industry standards.

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 18

You are the project manager of GFT project. Your project involves the use of electrical motor. It was stated in its specification that if its temperature would increase to 500 degree Fahrenheit the machine will overheat and have to be shut down for 48 hours. If the machine overheats even once it will delay the project's arrival date. So to prevent this you have decided while creating response that if the temperature of the machine reach 450, the machine will be paused for at least an hour so as to normalize its temperature. This temperature of 450 degrees is referred to as?

A. Risk identification

B. Risk trigger

C. Risk event

D. Risk response

 


Suggested Answer: B

A risk trigger is a warning sign or condition that a risk event is about to happen. Here the warning temperature is 450 degrees Fahrenheit, therefore it is referred as risk trigger.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risk identification is the process of the identifying the risks. This process identifies the risk events that could affect the project adversely or would act as opportunity.
C: Here risk event is 500-degree temperature, as when machine reaches this temperature it should have to be shut-down for 48 hours, which in turn will laid a great impact on the working of project.
D: Risk response here is shutting off of machine when its temperature reaches 450 degree Fahrenheit, so as to prevent the occurring of risk event.

 

Question 19

You are the project manager of the NHH Project. You are working with the project team to create a plan to document the procedures to manage risks throughout the project. This document will define how risks will be identified and quantified. It will also define how contingency plans will be implemented by the project team.
What document do you and your team is creating in this scenario?

A. Project plan

B. Resource management plan

C. Project management plan

D. Risk management plan

 


Suggested Answer: D

The risk management plan, part of the comprehensive management plan, defines how risks will be identified, analyzed, monitored and controlled, and even responded to.
A Risk management plan is a document arranged by a project manager to estimate the effectiveness, predict risks, and build response plans to mitigate them. It also consists of the risk assessment matrix.
Risks are built in with any project, and project managers evaluate risks repeatedly and build plans to address them. The risk management plan consists of analysis of possible risks with both high and low impacts, and the mitigation strategies to facilitate the project and avoid being derailed through which the common problems arise. Risk management plans should be timely reviewed by the project team in order to avoid having the analysis become stale and not reflective of actual potential project risks. Most critically, risk management plans include a risk strategy for project execution.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The project plan is not an official PMBOK project management plan.
B: The resource management plan defines the management of project resources, such as project team members, facilities, equipment, and contractors.
C: The project management plan is a comprehensive plan that communicates the intent of the project for all project management knowledge areas.

 

Question 20

Thomas is a key stakeholder in your project. Thomas has requested several changes to the project scope for the project you are managing.
Upon review of the proposed changes, you have discovered that these new requirements are laden with risks and you recommend to the change control board that the changes be excluded from the project scope. The change control board agrees with you. What component of the change control system communicates the approval or denial of a proposed change request?

A. Configuration management system

B. Integrated change control

C. Change log

D. Scope change control system

 


Suggested Answer: B

Integrated change control is responsible for facilitating, documenting, and dispersing information on a proposed change to the project scope.
Integrated change control is a way to manage the changes incurred during a project. It is a method that manages reviewing the suggestions for changes and utilizing the tools and techniques to evaluate whether the change should be approved or rejected. Integrated change control is a primary component of the project’s change control system that examines the affect of a proposed change on the entire project.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The configuration management system controls and documents changes to the project’s product
C: The change log documents approved changes in the project scope.
D: The scope change control system controls changes that are permitted to the project scope.

 

Question 21

Which of the following is the BEST approach for an organization in a heavily regulated industry to comprehensively test application functionality?

A. Use production data in a non-production environment.

B. Use anonymized data in a non-production environment.

C. Use test data in a production environment.

D. Use masked data in a non-production environment.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 22

A risk practitioner notices a risk scenario associated with data loss at the organization's cloud provider is assigned to the provider. Who should the risk scenario be reassigned to?

A. Chief risk officer

B. Vendor manager

C. Data owner

D. Senior management

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 23

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when using a generic set of IT risk scenarios for risk analysis?

A. Inherent risk might not be considered

B. Implementation costs might increase

C. Risk factors might not be relevant to the organization

D. Quantitative analysis might not be possible

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 24

When assembling IT risk scenarios, it is MOST important that the scenarios:

A. describe worst-case situations and the inherent likelihood of risk.

B. are linked to relevant business risk and corresponding information classification.

C. can be used for efficient risk identification and subsequent risk analysis.

D. consider the information criteria efficiency, effectiveness, and availability.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 25

An organization will be impacted by a new data privacy regulation due to the location of its production facilities. What action should the risk practitioner take when evaluating the new regulation?

A. Perform an analysis of the new regulation to ensure current risk is identified.

B. Evaluate if the existing risk responses to the previous regulation are still adequate.

C. Assess the validity and perform update testing on data privacy controls.

D. Develop internal control assessments over data privacy for the new regulation.

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 26

Which of the following attributes of data provided to an automated log analysis tool is MOST important for effective risk monitoring?

A. Retention

B. Confidentiality

C. Relevancy

D. Scalability

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 27

The PRIMARY reason to use a bottom-up approach to analyze risk scenarios is to:

A. identify the relationship to enterprise risk.

B. identify key stakeholders.

C. ensure risk details are appropriately gathered.

D. determine positional risk ranking.

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 28

Which component of a software inventory BEST enables the identification and mitigation of known vulnerabilities?

A. Software licensing information

B. Software version

C. Software support contract expiration

D. Assigned software manager

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 29

What is the PRIMARY purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

A. To determine the likelihood and impact of threats to business operations

B. To evaluate the priority of business operations in case of disruption

C. To estimate resource requirements for related business processes

D. To identify important business processes in the organization

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 30

Due to budget constraints, an organization cannot implement encryption to all databases. Which of the following is the MOST useful information to identify high- risk databases where encryption should be applied?

A. Business impact assessment (BIA)

B. Unsupported database list

C. Penetration test results

D. Data classification scheme

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 31

You are the project manager of GHT project. You have implemented an automated tool to analyze and report on access control logs based on severity. This tool generates excessively large amounts of results. You perform a risk assessment and decide to configure the monitoring tool to report only when the alerts are marked "critical". What you should do in order to fulfill that?

A. Apply risk response

B. Optimize Key Risk Indicator

C. Update risk register

D. Perform quantitative risk analysis

 


Suggested Answer: B

As the sensitivity of the monitoring tool has to be changed, therefore it requires optimization of Key Risk Indicator. The monitoring tool which is giving alerts is itself acting as a risk indicator. Hence to change the sensitivity of the monitoring tool to give alert only for critical situations requires optimization of the KRI.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: These options are not relevant to the change of sensitivity of the monitoring tools.

 

Question 32

Which of the following MOST effectively limits the impact of a ransomware attack?

A. End user training

B. Cyber insurance

C. Data backups

D. Cryptocurrency reserve

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 33

You are the project manager of the AFD project for your company. You are working with the project team to reassess existing risk events and to identify risk events that have not happened and whose relevancy to the project has passed. What should you do with these events that have not happened and would not happen now in the project?

A. Add the risk to the issues log

B. Close the outdated risks

C. Add the risks to the risk register

D. Add the risks to a low-priority watch-list

 


Suggested Answer: B

Risks that are now outdated should be closed by the project manager, there is no need to keep record of that.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risks do not go into the issue log, but the risk register.
C: Identified risks are already in the risk register.
D: Risks with low probability and low impact go on the risk watchlist.

 

Question 34

Mike is the project manager of the NNP Project for his organization. He is working with his project team to plan the risk responses for the NNP Project. Mike would like the project team to work together on establishing risk thresholds in the project. What is the purpose of establishing risk threshold?

A. It is a study of the organization’s risk tolerance.

B. It is a warning sign that a risk event is going to happen.

C. It is a limit of the funds that can be assigned to risk events.

D. It helps to identify those risks for which specific responses are needed.

 


Suggested Answer: D

Risk threshold helps to identify those risks for which specific responses are needed.

 

Question 35

An organization has outsourced its lease payment process to a service provider who lacks evidence of compliance with a necessary regulatory standard. Which risk treatment was adopted by the organization?

A. Acceptance

B. Transfer

C. Mitigation

D. Avoidance

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 36

A risk practitioner is advising management on how to update the IT policy framework to account for the organization's cloud usage. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in this process?

A. Evaluate adherence to existing IT policies and standards.

B. Determine gaps between the current state and target framework

C. Consult with industry peers regarding cloud best practices.

D. Adopt an industry-leading cloud computing framework

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 37

An application owner has specified the acceptable downtime in the event of an incident to be much lower than the actual time required for the response team to recover the application. Which of the following should be the NEXT course of action?

A. Invoke the disaster recovery plan (DRP) during an incident

B. Reduce the recovery time by strengthening the response team

C. Prepare a cost-benefit analysis of alternatives available

D. Implement redundant infrastructure for the application

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 38

Which of the following would BEST help identify the owner for each risk scenario in a risk register?

A. Allocating responsibility for risk factors equally to asset owners.

B. Determining resource dependency of assets.

C. Mapping identified risk factors to specific business processes.

D. Determining which departments contribute most to risk.

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 39

You and your project team have identified a few risk events in the project and recorded the events in the risk register. Part of the recording of the events includes the identification of a risk owner. Who is a risk owner?

A. A risk owner is the party that will monitor the risk events.

B. A risk owner is the party that will pay for the cost of the risk event if it becomes an issue.

C. A risk owner is the party that has caused the risk event.

D. A risk owner is the party authorized to respond to the risk event.

 


Suggested Answer: D

Risk owner for each risk should be the person who has the most influence over its outcome. Selecting the risk owner thus usually involves considering the source of risk and identifying the person who is best placed to understand and implement what needs to be done. They are also responsible for responding to the event and reporting on the risk status.
Incorrect Answers:
A: A risk owner will monitor the identified risks for status changes, but all project stakeholders should be iteratively looking to identify the risks.
B: Risk owners do not pay for the cost of the risk event.
C: Risk owners are not the people who cause the risk event.

 

Question 40

You are the program manager for your organization and you are working with Alice, a project manager in her program. Alice calls you and insists you to add a change to program scope. You agree for that the change. What must Alice do to move forward with her change request?

A. Add the change to the program scope herself, as she is a project manager

B. Create a change request charter justifying the change request

C. Document the change request in a change request form.

D. Add the change request to the scope and complete integrated change control

 


Suggested Answer: C

Change requests must be documented to be considered. Alice should create a change request form and follow the procedures of the change control system.

 

Question 41

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to review when prioritizing the implementation of multiple IT-related initiatives?

A. Risk policy

B. Risk profile

C. Risk assessment results

D. Risk awareness program objectives

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 42

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace?

A. Develop risk awareness training

B. Monitor employee usage

C. Identify the potential risk

D. Assess the potential risk

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 43

An organization expects to continually deal with severe distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks from hacktivist groups. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to help address this threat?

A. Implement Internet service provider (ISP) redundancy.

B. Implement an intrusion prevention system (IPS).

C. Develop an incident response plan.

D. Plan data center redundancy.

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 44

A change management process has recently been updated with new testing procedures. The NEXT course of action is to:

A. communicate to those who test and promote changes

B. assess the maturity of the change management process

C. conduct a cost-benefit analysis to justify the cost of the control

D. monitor processes to ensure recent updates are being followed

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 45

A multinational company needs to implement a new centralized security system. The risk practitioner has identified a conflict between the organization's data-handling policy and local privacy regulations. Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation?

A. Request a policy exception from senior management.

B. Request an exception from the local regulatory agency.

C. Comply with the organizational policy.

D. Report the noncompliance to the local regulatory agency.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 46

External auditors have found that management has not effectively monitored key security technologies that support regulatory objectives. Which type of indicator would BEST enable the organization to identify and correct this situation?

A. Key management indicator (KMI)

B. Key control indicator (KCI)

C. Key performance indicator (KPI)

D. Key risk indicator (KRI)

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 47

The PRIMARY objective for requiring an independent review of an organizations IT risk management process should be to:

A. ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating potential risk.

B. confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed as business impact.

C. assess gaps in IT risk management operations and strategic focus.

D. verify implemented controls to reduce the likelihood of threat materialization.

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 48

A rule-based data loss prevention (DLP) tool has recently been implemented to reduce the risk of sensitive data leakage. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this implementation?

A. Risk velocity

B. Risk impact

C. Risk likelihood

D. Risk appetite

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 49

An organization is planning to outsource its payroll function to an external service provider. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when selecting the provider?

A. Transparency of key performance indicators (KPIs)

B. Right to audit the provider

C. Disaster recovery plan (ORP) of the system

D. Internal controls to ensure data privacy

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 50

You are working in an enterprise. You project deals with important files that are stored on the computer. You have identified the risk of the failure of operations. To address this risk of failure, you have guided the system administrator sign off on the daily backup. This scenario is an example of which of the following?

A. Risk avoidance

B. Risk transference

C. Risk acceptance

D. Risk mitigation

 


Suggested Answer: D

Mitigation is the strategy that provides for the definition and implementation of controls to address the risk described. Here in this scenario, you are trying to reduce the risk of operation failure by guiding administrator to take daily backup, hence it is risk mitigation.
Risk mitigation attempts to reduce the probability of a risk event and its impacts to an acceptable level. Risk mitigation can utilize various forms of control carefully integrated together. The main control types are:
✑ Managerial(e.g.,policies)
✑ Technical (e.g., tools such as firewalls and intrusion detection systems)
✑ Operational (e.g., procedures, separation of duties)
✑ Preparedness activities
Incorrect Answers:
A: The scenario does not describe risk avoidance. Avoidance is a strategy that provides for not implementing certain activities or processes that would incur risk.
B: The scenario does not describe the sharing of risk. Transference is the strategy that provides for sharing risk with partners or taking insurance coverage.
C: The scenario does not describe risk acceptance, Acceptance is a strategy that provides for formal acknowledgment of the existence of a risk and the monitoring of that risk.

 

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