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  • CCSP Practice Test Free – 50 Real Exam Questions to Boost Your Confidence
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CCSP Practice Test Free – 50 Real Exam Questions to Boost Your Confidence

Preparing for the CCSP exam? Start with our CCSP Practice Test Free – a set of 50 high-quality, exam-style questions crafted to help you assess your knowledge and improve your chances of passing on the first try.

Taking a CCSP practice test free is one of the smartest ways to:

  • Get familiar with the real exam format and question types
  • Evaluate your strengths and spot knowledge gaps
  • Gain the confidence you need to succeed on exam day

Below, you will find 50 free CCSP practice questions to help you prepare for the exam. These questions are designed to reflect the real exam structure and difficulty level. You can click on each Question to explore the details.

Question 1

Which of the following threat types involves the sending of commands or arbitrary data through input fields in an application in an attempt to get that code executed as part of normal processing?

A. Cross-site scripting

B. Missing function-level access control

C. Injection

D. Cross-site forgery

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

An injection attack is where a malicious actor will send commands or other arbitrary data through input and data fields with the intent of having the application or system execute the code as part of its normal processing and queries. This can trick an application into exposing data that is not intended or authorized to be exposed, or it could potentially allow an attacker to gain insight into configurations or security controls. Missing function-level access control exists where an application only checks for authorization during the initial login process and does not further validate with each function call. Cross-site request forgery occurs when an attack forces an authenticated user to send forged requests to an application running under their own access and credentials. Cross-site scripting occurs when an attacker is able to send untrusted data to a user’s browser without going through validation processes.

Question 2

Over time, what is a primary concern for data archiving?

A. Size of archives

B. Format of archives

C. Recoverability

D. Regulatory changes

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Over time, maintaining the ability to restore and read archives is a primary concern for data archiving. As technologies change and new systems are brought in, it is imperative for an organization to ensure they are still able to restore and access archives for the duration of the required retention period.

Question 3

What concept does the A represent within the DREAD model?

A. Affected users

B. Authorization

C. Authentication

D. Affinity

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

The concept of affected users measures the percentage of users who would be impacted by a successful exploit. Scoring ranges from 0, which would impact no users, to 10, which would impact all users. None of the other options provided is the correct term.

Question 4

Which of the following is NOT part of a retention policy?

A. Format

B. Costs

C. Accessibility

D. Duration

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

The data retention policy covers the duration, format, technologies, protection, and accessibility of archives, but does not address the specific costs of its implementation and maintenance.

Question 5

Which phase of the cloud data lifecycle would be the MOST appropriate for the use of DLP technologies to protect the data?

A. Use

B. Store

C. Share

D. Create

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

During the share phase, data is allowed to leave the application for consumption by other vendors, systems, or services. At this point, as the data is leaving the security controls of the application, the use of DLP technologies is appropriate to control how the data is used or to force expiration. During the use, create, and store phases, traditional security controls are available and are more appropriate because the data is still internal to the application.

Question 6

Which of the following threat types involves leveraging a user's browser to send untrusted data to be executed with legitimate access via the user's valid credentials?

A. Injection

B. Missing function-level access control

C. Cross-site scripting

D. Cross-site request forgery

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: C

Explanation –
Cross-site scripting (XSS) is an attack where a malicious actor is able to send untrusted data to a user’s browser without going through any validation or sanitization processes, or perhaps the code is not properly escaped from processing by the browser. The code is then executed on the user’s browser with their own access and permissions, allowing the attacker to redirect the user’s web traffic, steal data from their session, or potentially access information on the user’s own computer that their browser has the ability to access. Missing function-level access control exists where an application only checks for authorization during the initial login process and does not further validate with each function call. An injection attack is where a malicious actor sends commands or other arbitrary data through input and data fields with the intent of having the application or system execute the code as part of its normal processing and queries. Cross-site request forgery occurs when an attack forces an authenticated user to send forged requests to an application running under their own access and credentials.

Question 7

Which of the following is NOT a function performed by the handshake protocol of TLS?

A. Key exchange

B. Encryption

C. Negotiation of connection

D. Establish session ID

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

The handshake protocol negotiates and establishes the connection as well as handles the key exchange and establishes the session ID. It does not perform the actual encryption of data packets.

Question 8

Which of the following is NOT a function performed by the record protocol of TLS?

A. Encryption

B. Acceleration

C. Authentication

D. Compression

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

The record protocol of TLS performs the authentication and encryption of data packets, and in some cases compression as well. It does not perform any acceleration functions.

Question 9

Which of the following does NOT relate to the hiding of sensitive data from data sets?

A. Obfuscation

B. Federation

C. Masking

D. Anonymization

 


Suggested Answer: B

Federation pertains to authenticating systems between different organizations.

Question 10

Which of the following is a restriction that can be enforced by information rights management (IRM) that is not possible for traditional file system controls?

A. Delete

B. Modify

C. Read

D. Print

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

IRM allows an organization to control who can print a set of information. This is not be possible under traditional file system controls, where if a user can read a file, they are able to print it as well.

Question 11

Which networking concept in a cloud environment allows for network segregation and isolation of IP spaces?

A. PLAN

B. WAN

C. LAN

D. VLAN

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

A virtual area network (VLAN) allows the logical separation and isolation of networks and IP spaces to provide enhanced security and controls.

Question 12

Which of the following would make it more likely that a cloud provider would be unwilling to satisfy specific certification requirements?

A. Resource pooling

B. Virtualization

C. Multitenancy

D. Regulation

 


Suggested Answer: C

With cloud providers hosting a number of different customers, it would be impractical for them to pursue additional certifications based on the needs of a specific customer. Cloud environments are built to a common denominator to serve the greatest number of customers, and especially within a public cloud model, it is not possible or practical for a cloud provider to alter their services for specific customer demands.

Question 13

In the cloud motif, the data processor is usually:

A. The cloud customer

B. The cloud provider

C. The cloud access security broker

D. The party that assigns access rights

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

In legal terms, when ג€data processorג€ is defined, it refers to anyone who stores, handles, moves, or manipulates data on behalf of the data owner or controller. In the cloud computing realm, this is the cloud provider.

Question 14

For performance purposes, OS monitoring should include all of the following except:

A. Disk space

B. Disk I/O usage

C. CPU usage

D. Print spooling

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Print spooling is not a metric for system performance; all the rest are.

Question 15

Which cloud deployment model would be ideal for a group of universities looking to work together, where each university can gain benefits according to its specific needs?

A. Private

B. Public

C. Hybrid

D. Community

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

A community cloud is owned and maintained by similar organizations working toward a common goal. In this case, the universities would all have very similar needs and calendar requirements, and they would not be financial competitors of each other. Therefore, this would be an ideal group for working together within a community cloud. A public cloud model would not work in this scenario because it is designed to serve the largest number of customers, would not likely be targeted toward specific requirements for individual customers, and would not be willing to make changes for them. A private cloud could accommodate such needs, but would not meet the criteria for a group working together, and a hybrid cloud spanning multiple cloud providers would not fit the specifics of the question.

Question 16

What process is used within a cloud environment to maintain resource balancing and ensure that resources are available where and when needed?

A. Dynamic clustering

B. Dynamic balancing

C. Dynamic resource scheduling

D. Dynamic optimization

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Dynamic optimization is the process through which the cloud environment is constantly maintained to ensure resources are available when and where needed, and that physical nodes do not become overloaded or near capacity, while others are underutilized.

Question 17

With the rapid emergence of cloud computing, very few regulations were in place that pertained to it specifically, and organizations often had to resort to using a collection of regulations that were not specific to cloud in order to drive audits and policies.
Which standard from the ISO/IEC was designed specifically for cloud computing?

A. ISO/IEC 27001

B. ISO/IEC 19889

C. ISO/IEC 27001:2015

D. ISO/IEC 27018

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

ISO/IEC 27018 was implemented to address the protection of personal and sensitive information within a cloud environment. ISO/IEC 27001 and its later
27001:2015 revision are both general-purpose data security standards. ISO/IEC 19889 is an erroneous answer.

Question 18

Which of the following cloud aspects complicates eDiscovery?

A. Resource pooling

B. On-demand self-service

C. Multitenancy

D. Measured service

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

With multitenancy, eDiscovery becomes more complicated because the data collection involves extra steps to ensure that only those customers or systems that are within scope are turned over to the requesting authority.

Question 19

DLP solutions can aid in deterring loss due to which of the following?

A. Device failure

B. Randomization

C. Inadvertent disclosure

D. Natural disaster

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

DLP solutions may protect against inadvertent disclosure. Randomization is a technique for obscuring data, not a risk to data. DLP tools will not protect against risks from natural disasters, or against impacts due to device failure.

Question 20

Modern web service systems are designed for high availability and resiliency. Which concept pertains to the ability to detect problems within a system, environment, or application and programmatically invoke redundant systems or processes for mitigation?

A. Elasticity

B. Redundancy

C. Fault tolerance

D. Automation

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Fault tolerance allows a system to continue functioning, even with degraded performance, if portions of it fail or degrade, without the entire system or service being taken down. It can detect problems within a service and invoke compensating systems or functions to keep functionality going. Although redundancy is similar to fault tolerance, it is more focused on having additional copies of systems available, either active or passive, that can take up services if one system goes down.
Elasticity pertains to the ability of a system to resize to meet demands, but it is not focused on system failures. Automation, and its role in maintaining large systems with minimal intervention, is not directly related to fault tolerance.

Question 21

Which of the following are attributes of cloud computing?

A. Minimal management effort and shared resources

B. High cost and unique resources

C. Rapid provisioning and slow release of resources

D. Limited access and service provider interaction

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

Cloud computing is a model for enabling ubiquitous, convenient, on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable computing resources (e.g., networks, servers, storage, applications, and services) that can be rapidly provisioned and released with minimal management effort or service provider interaction.

Question 22

When an organization is considering the use of cloud services for BCDR planning and solutions, which of the following cloud concepts would be the most important?

A. Reversibility

B. Elasticity

C. Interoperability

D. Portability

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: B

Portability is the ability for a service or system to easily move among different cloud providers. This is essential for using a cloud solution for BCDR because vendor lock-in would inhibit easily moving and setting up services in the event of a disaster, or it would necessitate a large number of configuration or component changes to implement. Interoperability, or the ability to reuse components for other services or systems, would not be an important factor for BCDR. Reversibility, or the ability to remove all data quickly and completely from a cloud environment, would be important at the end of a disaster, but would not be important during setup and deployment. Elasticity, or the ability to resize resources to meet current demand, would be very beneficial to a BCDR situation, but not as vital as portability.

Question 23

In order to prevent cloud customers from potentially consuming enormous amounts of resources within a cloud environment and thus having a negative impact on other customers, what concept is commonly used by a cloud provider?

A. Limit

B. Cap

C. Throttle

D. Reservation

 


Suggested Answer: A

A limit puts a maximum value on the amount of resources that may be consumed by either a system, a service, or a cloud customer. It is commonly used to prevent one entity from consuming enormous amounts of resources and having an operational impact on other tenants within the same cloud system. Limits can either be hard or somewhat flexible, meaning a customer can borrow from other customers while still having their actual limit preserved. A reservation is a guarantee to a cloud customer that a certain level of resources will always be available to them, regardless of what operational demands are currently placed on the cloud environment. Both cap and throttle are terms that sound similar to limit, but they are not the correct terms in this case.

Question 24

You need to gain approval to begin moving your company's data and systems into a cloud environment. However, your CEO has mandated the ability to easily remove your IT assets from the cloud provider as a precondition.
Which of the following cloud concepts would this pertain to?

A. Removability

B. Extraction

C. Portability

D. Reversibility

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Reversibility is the cloud concept involving the ability for a cloud customer to remove all of its data and IT assets from a cloud provider. Also, processes and agreements would be in place with the cloud provider that ensure all removals have been completed fully within the agreed upon timeframe. Portability refers to the ability to easily move between different cloud providers and not be locked into a specific one. Removability and extraction are both provided as terms similar to reversibility, but neither is the official term or concept.

Question 25

Unlike SOC Type 1 reports, which are based on a specific point in time, SOC Type 2 reports are done over a period of time. What is the minimum span of time for a SOC Type 2 report?

A. Six months

B. One month

C. One year

D. One week

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

SOC Type 2 reports are focused on the same policies and procedures, as well as their effectiveness, as SOC Type 1 reports, but are evaluated over a period of at least six consecutive months, rather than a finite point in time.

Question 26

What is a standard configuration and policy set that is applied to systems and virtual machines called?

A. Standardization

B. Baseline

C. Hardening

D. Redline

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

The most common and efficient manner of securing operating systems is through the use of baselines. A baseline is a standardized and understood set of base configurations and settings. When a new system is built or a new virtual machine is established, baselines will be applied to a new image to ensure the base configuration meets organizational policy and regulatory requirements.

Question 27

Which cloud storage type resembles a virtual hard drive and can be utilized in the same manner and with the same type of features and capabilities?

A. Volume

B. Unstructured

C. Structured

D. Object

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

Volume storage is allocated and mounted as a virtual hard drive within IaaS implementations, and it can be maintained and used the same way a traditional file system can. Object storage uses a flat structure on remote services that is accessed via opaque descriptors, structured storage resembles database storage, and unstructured storage is used to hold auxiliary files in conjunction with applications hosted within a PaaS implementation.

Question 28

During which phase of the cloud data lifecycle is it possible for the classification of data to change?

A. Use

B. Archive

C. Create

D. Share

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: A

The create phase encompasses any time data is created, imported, or modified. With any change in the content or value of data, the classification may also change. It must be continually reevaluated to ensure proper security. During the use, share, and archive phases, the data is not modified in any way, so the original classification is still relevant.

Question 29

What is the data encapsulation used with the SOAP protocol referred to?

A. Packet

B. Envelope

C. Payload

D. Object

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) encapsulates its information in what is known as a SOAP envelope and then leverages common communications protocols for transmission.

Question 30

What is the concept of segregating information or processes, within the same system or application, for security reasons?

A. fencing

B. Sandboxing

C. Cellblocking

D. Pooling

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

Sandboxing involves segregating and isolating information or processes from others within the same system or application, typically for security concerns. This is generally used for data isolation (for example, keeping different communities and populations of users isolated from other similar data).

Question 31

What is the cloud service model in which the customer is responsible for administration of the OS?

A. QaaS

B. SaaS

C. PaaS

D. IaaS

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

In IaaS, the cloud provider only owns the hardware and supplies the utilities. The customer is responsible for the OS, programs, and data. In PaaS and SaaS, the provider also owns the OS. There is no QaaS. That is a red herring.

Question 32

Which of the following publishes the most commonly used standard for data center design in regard to tiers and topologies?

A. IDCA

B. Uptime Institute

C. NFPA

D. BICSI

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

The Uptime Institute publishes the most commonly used and widely known standard on data center tiers and topologies. It is based on a series of four tiers, with each progressive increase in number representing more stringent, reliable, and redundant systems for security, connectivity, fault tolerance, redundancy, and cooling.

Question 33

What is the only data format permitted with the SOAP API?

A. HTML

B. SAML

C. XSML

D. XML

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

The SOAP protocol only supports the XML data format.

Question 34

Your company is in the planning stages of moving applications that have large data sets to a cloud environment.
What strategy for data removal would be the MOST appropriate for you to recommend if costs and speed are primary considerations?

A. Shredding

B. Media destruction

C. Crypthographic erasure

D. Overwriting

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Cryptographic erasure involves having the data encrypted, typically as a matter of standard operations, and then rendering the data useless and unreadable by destroying the encryption keys for it. It represents a very cheap and immediate way to destroy data, and it works in all environments. With a cloud environment and multitenancy, media destruction or the physical destruction of storage devices, including shredding, would not be possible. Depending on the environment, overwriting may or may not be possible, but cryptographic erasure is the best answer because it is always an available option and is very quick to implement.

Question 35

Which of the following is NOT a key area for performance monitoring as far as an SLA is concerned?

A. CPU

B. Users

C. Memory

D. Network

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

An SLA requires performance monitoring of CPU, memory, storage, and networking. The number of users active on a system would not be part of an SLA specifically, other than in regard to the impact on the other four variables.

Question 36

Which of the cloud cross-cutting aspects relates to the assigning of jobs, tasks, and roles, as well as to ensuring they are successful and properly performed?

A. Service-level agreements

B. Governance

C. Regulatory requirements

D. Auditability

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

Governance at its core is the idea of assigning jobs, takes, roles, and responsibilities and ensuring they are satisfactory performed.

Question 37

Which aspect of security is DNSSEC designed to ensure?

A. Integrity

B. Authentication

C. Availability

D. Confidentiality

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

DNSSEC is a security extension to the regular DNS protocol and services that allows for the validation of the integrity of DNS lookups. It does not address confidentiality or availability at all. It allows for a DNS client to perform DNS lookups and validate both their origin and authority via the cryptographic signature that accompanies the DNS response.

Question 38

The president of your company has tasked you with implementing cloud services as the most efficient way of obtaining a robust disaster recovery configuration for your production services.
Which of the cloud deployment models would you MOST likely be exploring?

A. Hybrid

B. Private

C. Community

D. Public

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

A hybrid cloud model spans two more different hosting configurations or cloud providers. This would enable an organization to continue using its current hosting configuration, while adding additional cloud services to enable disaster recovery capabilities. The other cloud deployment models–public, private, and community– would not be applicable for seeking a disaster recovery configuration where cloud services are to be leveraged for that purpose rather than production service hosting.

Question 39

Which of the cloud deployment models involves spanning multiple cloud environments or a mix of cloud hosting models?

A. Community

B. Public

C. Hybrid

D. Private

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

A hybrid cloud model involves the use of more than one type of cloud hosting models, typically the mix of private and public cloud hosting models.

Question 40

Which term relates to the application of scientific methods and practices to evidence?

A. Forensics

B. Methodical

C. Theoretical

D. Measured

 


Suggested Answer: A

Forensics is the application of scientific and methodical processes to identify, collect, preserve, analyze, and summarize/report digital information and evidence.

Question 41

Which aspect of archiving must be tested regularly for the duration of retention requirements?

A. Availability

B. Recoverability

C. Auditability

D. Portability

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

In order for any archiving system to be deemed useful and compliant, regular tests must be performed to ensure the data can still be recovered and accessible, should it ever be needed, for the duration of the retention requirements.

Question 42

Which crucial aspect of cloud computing can be most threatened by insecure APIs?

A. Automation

B. Resource pooling

C. Elasticity

D. Redundancy

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

Cloud environments depend heavily on API calls for management and automation. Any vulnerability with the APIs can cause significant risk and exposure to all tenants of the cloud environment. Resource pooling and elasticity could both be impacted by insecure APIs, as both require automation and orchestration to operate properly, but automation is the better answer here. Redundancy would not be directly impacted by insecure APIs.

Question 43

Which of the following roles involves the connection and integration of existing systems and services to a cloud environment?

A. Cloud service business manager

B. Cloud service user

C. Cloud service administrator

D. Cloud service integrator

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

The cloud service integrator is the official role that involves connecting and integrating existing systems and services with a cloud environment. This may involve moving services into a cloud environment, or connecting to external cloud services and capabilities from traditional data center-hosted services.

Question 44

Upon completing a risk analysis, a company has four different approaches to addressing risk. Which approach it takes will be based on costs, available options, and adherence to any regulatory requirements from independent audits.
Which of the following groupings correctly represents the four possible approaches?

A. Accept, avoid, transfer, mitigate

B. Accept, deny, transfer, mitigate

C. Accept, deny, mitigate, revise

D. Accept, dismiss, transfer, mitigate

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

The four possible approaches to risk are as follows: accept (do not patch and continue with the risk), avoid (implement solutions to prevent the risk from occurring), transfer (take out insurance), and mitigate (change configurations or patch to resolve the risk). Each of these answers contains at least one incorrect approach name.

Question 45

Which technology can be useful during the "share" phase of the cloud data lifecycle to continue to protect data as it leaves the original system and security controls?

A. IPS

B. WAF

C. DLP

D. IDS

 


Suggested Answer: C

Data loss prevention (DLP) can be applied to data that is leaving the security enclave to continue to enforce access restrictions and policies on other clients and systems.

Question 46

Which of the following are the storage types associated with IaaS?

A. Volume and object

B. Volume and label

C. Volume and container

D. Object and target

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

 

Question 47

Cryptographic keys for encrypted data stored in the cloud should be ________________ .

A. Not stored with the cloud provider.

B. Generated with redundancy

C. At least 128 bits long

D. Split into groups

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

Cryptographic keys should not be stored along with the data they secure, regardless of key length. We don’t split crypto keys or generate redundant keys (doing so would violate the principle of secrecy necessary for keys to serve their purpose).

Question 48

Which value refers to the amount of data an organization would need to recover in the event of a BCDR situation in order to reach an acceptable level of operations?

A. SRE

B. RTO

C. RPO

D. RSL

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

The recovery point objective (RPO) is defined as the amount of data a company would need to maintain and recover in order to function at a level acceptable to management. This may or may not be a restoration to full operating capacity, depending on what management deems as crucial and essential.

Question 49

Which of the following is considered an administrative control?

A. Keystroke logging

B. Access control process

C. Door locks

D. Biometric authentication

 


Suggested Answer: B

A process is an administrative control; sometimes, the process includes elements of other types of controls (in this case, the access control mechanism might be a technical control, or it might be a physical control), but the process itself is administrative. Keystroke logging is a technical control (or an attack, if done for malicious purposes, and not for auditing); door locks are a physical control; and biometric authentication is a technological control.

Question 50

Which of the following features is a main benefit of PaaS over IaaS?

A. Location independence

B. High-availability

C. Physical security requirements

D. Auto-scaling

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

With PaaS providing a fully configured and managed framework, auto-scaling can be implemented to programmatically adjust resources based on the current demands of the environment.

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We regularly update this page with new practice questions, so be sure to check back frequently.

Good luck with your CCSP certification journey!

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