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  • CCSP Practice Exam Free – 50 Questions to Simulate the Real Exam
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CCSP Practice Exam Free – 50 Questions to Simulate the Real Exam

Are you getting ready for the CCSP certification? Take your preparation to the next level with our CCSP Practice Exam Free – a carefully designed set of 50 realistic exam-style questions to help you evaluate your knowledge and boost your confidence.

Using a CCSP practice exam free is one of the best ways to:

  • Experience the format and difficulty of the real exam
  • Identify your strengths and focus on weak areas
  • Improve your test-taking speed and accuracy

Below, you will find 50 realistic CCSP practice exam free questions covering key exam topics. Each question reflects the structure and challenge of the actual exam.

Question 1

Proper implementation of DLP solutions for successful function requires which of the following?

A. Physical access limitations

B. USB connectivity

C. Accurate data categorization

D. Physical presence

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

DLP tools need to be aware of which information to monitor and which requires categorization (usually done upon data creation, by the data owners). DLPs can be implemented with or without physical access or presence. USB connectivity has nothing to do with DLP solutions.

Question 2

Which data sanitation method is also commonly referred to as "zeroing"?

A. Overwriting

B. Nullification

C. Blanking

D. Deleting

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

The zeroing of data–or the writing of null values or arbitrary data to ensure deletion has been fully completed–is officially referred to as overwriting. Nullification, deleting, and blanking are provided as distractor terms.

Question 3

Tokenization requires two distinct _________________ .

A. Personnel

B. Authentication factors

C. Encryption keys

D. Databases

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

In order to implement tokenization, there will need to be two databases: the database containing the raw, original data, and the token database containing tokens that map to original data. Having two-factor authentication is nice, but certainly not required. Encryption keys are not necessary for tokenization. Two-person integrity does not have anything to do with tokenization.

Question 4

What is the biggest negative to leasing space in a data center versus building or maintain your own?

A. Costs

B. Control

C. Certification

D. Regulation

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

When leasing space in a data center, an organization will give up a large degree of control as to how it is built and maintained, and instead must conform to the policies and procedures of the owners and operators of the data center.

Question 5

What must SOAP rely on for security since it does not provide security as a built-in capability?

A. Encryption

B. Tokenization

C. TLS

D. SSL

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: C

Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) uses Extensible Markup Language (XML) for data passing, and it must rely on the encryption of those data packages for security. TLS and SSL (before it was deprecated) represent two commons approaches to using encryption for protection of data transmissions. However, they are only two possible options and do not encapsulate the overall concept the question is looking for. Tokenization, which involves the replacement of sensitive data with opaque values, would not be appropriate for use with SOAP because the actual data is needed by the services.

Question 6

Which of the following roles is responsible for overseeing customer relationships and the processing of financial transactions?

A. Cloud service manager

B. Cloud service deployment

C. Cloud service business manager

D. Cloud service operations manager

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

The cloud service business manager is responsible for overseeing business plans and customer relationships as well as processing financial transactions.

Question 7

If you're using iSCSI in a cloud environment, what must come from an external protocol or application?

A. Kerberos support

B. CHAP support

C. Authentication

D. Encryption

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: B

iSCSI does not natively support encryption, so another technology such as IPsec must be used to encrypt communications.

Question 8

Cloud systems are increasingly used for BCDR solutions for organizations.
What aspect of cloud computing makes their use for BCDR the most attractive?

A. On-demand self-service

B. Measured service

C. Portability

D. Broad network access

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: C

Business continuity and disaster recovery (BCDR) solutions largely sit idle until they are actually needed. This traditionally has led to increased costs for an organization because physical hardware must be purchased and operational but is not used. By using a cloud system, an organization will only pay for systems when they are being used and only for the duration of use, thus eliminating the need for extra hardware and costs. Portability is the ability to easily move services among different cloud providers. Broad network access allows access to users and staff from anywhere and from different clients, and although this would be important for a BCDR situation, it is not the best answer in this case. On-demand self-service allows users to provision services automatically and when needed, and although this too would be important for BCDR situations, it is not the best answer because it does not address costs or the biggest benefits to an organization.

Question 9

What is one of the reasons a baseline might be changed?

A. Numerous change requests

B. To reduce redundancy

C. Natural disaster

D. Power fluctuation

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

If the CMB is receiving numerous change requests to the point where the amount of requests would drop by modifying the baseline, then that is a good reason to change the baseline. None of the other reasons should involve the baseline at all.

Question 10

Database activity monitoring (DAM) can be:

A. Host-based or network-based

B. Server-based or client-based

C. Used in the place of encryption

D. Used in place of data masking

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

We don’t use DAM in place of encryption or masking; DAM augments these options without replacing them. We don’t usually think of the database interaction as client-server, so A is the best answer.

Question 11

Which protocol allows a system to use block-level storage as if it was a SAN, but over TCP network traffic instead?

A. SATA

B. iSCSI

C. TLS

D. SCSI

 


Suggested Answer: B

iSCSI is a protocol that allows for the transmission and use of SCSI commands and features over a TCP-based network. iSCSI allows systems to use block-level storage that looks and behaves as a SAN would with physical servers, but to leverage the TCP network within a virtualized environment and cloud.

Question 12

Who would be responsible for implementing IPsec to secure communications for an application?

A. Developers

B. Systems staff

C. Auditors

D. Cloud customer

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

Because IPsec is implemented at the system or network level, it is the responsibility of the systems staff. IPsec removes the responsibility from developers, whereas other technologies such as TLS would be implemented by developers.

Question 13

All of the following are terms used to described the practice of obscuring original raw data so that only a portion is displayed for operational purposes, except:

A. Tokenization

B. Masking

C. Data discovery

D. Obfuscation

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Data discovery is a term used to describe the process of identifying information according to specific traits or categories. The rest are all methods for obscuring data.

Question 14

Which component of ITIL involves the creation of an RFC ticket and obtaining official approvals for it?

A. Problem management

B. Release management

C. Deployment management

D. Change management

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

The change management process involves the creation of the official Request for Change (RFC) ticket, which is used to document the change, obtain the required approvals from management and stakeholders, and track the change to completion. Release management is a subcomponent of change management, where the actual code or configuration change is put into place. Deployment management is similar to release management, but it’s where changes are actually implemented on systems. Problem management is focused on the identification and mitigation of known problems and deficiencies before they are able to occur.

Question 15

Which aspect of cloud computing makes it very difficult to perform repeat audits over time to track changes and compliance?

A. Virtualization

B. Multitenancy

C. Resource pooling

D. Dynamic optimization

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

Cloud environments will regularly change virtual machines as patching and versions are changed. Unlike a physical environment, there is little continuity from one period of time to another. It is very unlikely that the same virtual machines would be in use during a repeat audit.

Question 16

Which protocol, as a part of TLS, handles the actual secure communications and transmission of data?

A. Negotiation

B. Handshake

C. Transfer

D. Record

 


Suggested Answer: D

The TLS record protocol is the actual secure communications method for transmitting data; it’s responsible for encrypting and authenticating packets throughout their transmission between the parties, and in some cases it also performs compression. The TLS handshake protocol is what negotiates and establishes the TLS connection between two parties and enables the secure communications channel to then handle data transmissions. Negotiation and transfer are not protocols under TLS.

Question 17

What is the biggest benefit to leasing space in a data center versus building or maintain your own?

A. Certification

B. Costs

C. Regulation

D. Control

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

When leasing space in a data center, an organization can avoid the enormous startup and building costs associated with a data center, and can instead leverage economies of scale by grouping with other organizations and sharing costs.

Question 18

Which of the following is NOT a key area for performance monitoring as far as an SLA is concerned?

A. CPU

B. Users

C. Memory

D. Network

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

An SLA requires performance monitoring of CPU, memory, storage, and networking. The number of users active on a system would not be part of an SLA specifically, other than in regard to the impact on the other four variables.

Question 19

With IaaS, what is responsible for handling the security and control over the volume storage space?

A. Management plane

B. Operating system

C. Application

D. Hypervisor

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

Volume storage is allocated via a LUN to a system and then treated the same as any traditional storage. The operating system is responsible for formatting and securing volume storage as well as controlling all access to it. Applications, although they may use volume storage and have permissions to write to it, are not responsible for its formatting and security. Both a hypervisor and the management plane are outside of an individual system and are not responsible for managing the files and storage within that system.

Question 20

What masking strategy involves the replacing of sensitive data at the time it is accessed and used as it flows between the data and application layers of a service?

A. Active

B. Static

C. Dynamic

D. Transactional

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Dynamic masking involves the live replacing of sensitive data fields during transactional use between the data and application layers of a service. Static masking involves creating a full data set with the sensitive data fields masked, but is not done during live transactions like dynamic masking. Active and transactional are offered as similar types of answers but are not types of masking.

Question 21

Which attribute of data poses the biggest challenge for data discovery?

A. Labels

B. Quality

C. Volume

D. Format

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: C

The main problem when it comes to data discovery is the quality of the data that analysis is being performed against. Data that is malformed, incorrectly stored or labeled, or incomplete makes it very difficult to use analytical tools against.

Question 22

Which of the following is the best example of a key component of regulated PII?

A. Audit rights of subcontractors

B. Items that should be implemented

C. PCI DSS

D. Mandatory breach reporting

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Mandatory breach reporting is the best example of regulated PII components. The rest are generally considered components of contractual PII.

Question 23

A comprehensive BCDR plan will encapsulate many or most of the traditional concerns of operating a system in any data center.
However, what is one consideration that is often overlooked with the formulation of a BCDR plan?

A. Availability of staff

B. Capacity at the BCDR site

C. Restoration of services

D. Change management processes

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: A

BCDR planning tends to focus so much on the failing over of services in the case of a disaster that recovery back to primary hosting after the disaster is often overlooked. In many instances, this can be just as complex a process as failing over, if not more so. Availability of staff, capacity at the BCDR site, and change management processes are typically integral to BCDR plans and are common components of them.

Question 24

Which of the following pertains to a macro level approach to data center design rather than the traditional tiered approach to data centers?

A. IDCA

B. NFPA

C. BICSI

D. Uptime Institute

 


Suggested Answer: A

The standards put out by the International Data Center Authority (IDCA) have established the Infinity Paradigm, which is intended to be a comprehensive data center design and operations framework. The Infinity Paradigm shifts away from many models that rely on tiered architecture for data centers, where each successive tier increases redundancy. Instead, it emphasizes data centers being approached at a macro level, without a specific and isolated focus on certain aspects to achieve tier status.

Question 25

Without the extensive funds of a large corporation, a small-sized company could gain considerable and cost-effective services for which of the following concepts by moving to a cloud environment?

A. Regulatory

B. Security

C. Testing

D. Development

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

Cloud environments, regardless of the specific deployment model used, have extensive and robust security controls in place, especially in regard to physical and infrastructure security. A small company can leverage the extensive security controls and monitoring provided by a cloud provider, which they would unlikely ever be able to afford on their own. Moving to a cloud would not result in any gains for development and testing because these areas require the same rigor regardless of where deployment and hosting occur. Regulatory compliance in a cloud would not be a gain for an organization because it would likely result in additional oversight and auditing as well as require the organization to adapt to a new environment.

Question 26

Which of the following would NOT be a reason to activate a BCDR strategy?

A. Staffing loss

B. Terrorism attack

C. Utility disruptions

D. Natural disaster

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

The loss of staffing would not be a reason to declare a BCDR situation because it does not impact production operations or equipment, and the same staff would be needed for a BCDR situation.

Question 27

The application normative framework is best described as which of the following?

A. A superset of the ONF

B. A stand-alone framework for storing security practices for the ONF

C. The complete ONF

D. A subnet of the ONF

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Remember, there is a one-to-many ratio of ONF to ANF; each organization has one ONF and many ANFs (one for each application in the organization).
Therefore, the ANF is a subset of the ONF.

Question 28

Which of the cloud cross-cutting aspects relates to the oversight of processes and systems, as well as to ensuring their compliance with specific policies and regulations?

A. Governance

B. Regulatory requirements

C. Service-level agreements

D. Auditability

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: A

Auditing involves reports and evidence that show user activity, compliance with controls and regulations, the systems and processes that run and what they do, as well as information and data access and modification records. A cloud environment adds additional complexity to traditional audits because the cloud customer will not have the same level of access to systems and data as they would in a traditional data center.

Question 29

Which aspect of cloud computing would make the use of a cloud the most attractive as a BCDR solution?

A. Interoperability

B. Resource pooling

C. Portability

D. Measured service

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Measured service means that costs are only incurred when a cloud customer is actually using cloud services. This is ideal for a business continuity and disaster recovery (BCDR) solution because it negates the need to keep hardware or resources on standby in case of a disaster. Services can be initiated when needed and without costs unless needed.

Question 30

What strategy involves replacing sensitive data with opaque values, usually with a means of mapping it back to the original value?

A. Masking

B. Anonymization

C. Tokenization

D. Obfuscation

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Tokenization is the practice of utilizing a random and opaque “token” value in data to replace what otherwise would be a sensitive or protected data object. The token value is usually generated by the application with a means to map it back to the actual real value, and then the token value is placed in the data set with the same formatting and requirements of the actual real value so that the application can continue to function without different modifications or code changes.

Question 31

A main objective for an organization when utilizing cloud services is to avoid vendor lock-in so as to ensure flexibility and maintain independence.
Which core concept of cloud computing is most related to vendor lock-in?

A. Scalability

B. Interoperability

C. Portability

D. Reversibility

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Portability is the ability for a cloud customer to easily move their systems, services, and applications among different cloud providers. By avoiding reliance on proprietary APIs and other vendor-specific cloud features, an organization can maintain flexibility to move among the various cloud providers with greater ease.
Reversibility refers to the ability for a cloud customer to quickly and easy remove all their services and data from a cloud provider. Interoperability is the ability to reuse services and components for other applications and uses. Scalability refers to the ability of a cloud environment to add or remove resources to meet current demands.

Question 32

Which of the following standards primarily pertains to cabling designs and setups in a data center?

A. IDCA

B. BICSI

C. NFPA

D. Uptime Institute

 


Suggested Answer: B

The standards put out by Building Industry Consulting Service International (BICSI) primarily cover complex cabling designs and setups for data centers, but also include specifications on power, energy efficiency, and hot/cold aisle setups.

Question 33

Which of the following is the sole responsibility of the cloud customer, regardless of which cloud model is used?

A. Platform

B. Infrastructure

C. Governance

D. Application

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Regardless of which cloud-hosting model is used, the cloud customer always has sole responsibility for the governance of systems and data.

Question 34

Data labels could include all the following, except:

A. Multifactor authentication

B. Access restrictions

C. Confidentiality level

D. Distribution limitations

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

All the others might be included in data labels, but multifactor authentication is a procedure used for access control, not a label.

Question 35

The cloud customer's trust in the cloud provider can be enhanced by all of the following except:

A. SLAs

B. Shared administration

C. Audits

D. real-time video surveillance

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Video surveillance will not provide meaningful information and will not enhance trust. All the others will do it.

Question 36

Which of the following service categories entails the least amount of support needed on the part of the cloud customer?

A. SaaS

B. IaaS

C. DaaS

D. PaaS

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

With SaaS providing a fully functioning application that is managed and maintained by the cloud provider, cloud customers incur the least amount of support responsibilities themselves of any service category.

Question 37

In a federated identity arrangement using a trusted third-party model, who is the identity provider and who is the relying party?

A. The users of the various organizations within the federations within the federation/a CASB

B. Each member organization/a trusted third party

C. Each member organization/each member organization

D. A contracted third party/the various member organizations of the federation

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

In a trusted third-party model of federation, each member organization outsources the review and approval task to a third party they all trust. This makes the third party the identifier (it issues and manages identities for all users in all organizations in the federation), and the various member organizations are the relying parties (the resource providers that share resources based on approval from the third party).

Question 38

What type of storage structure does object storage employ to maintain files?

A. Directory

B. Hierarchical

C. tree

D. Flat

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Object storage uses a flat file system to hold storage objects; it assigns files a key value that is then used to access them, rather than relying on directories or descriptive filenames. Typical storage layouts such as tree, directory, and hierarchical structures are used within volume storage, whereas object storage maintains a flat structure with key values.

Question 39

Which of the following threat types involves the sending of commands or arbitrary data through input fields in an application in an attempt to get that code executed as part of normal processing?

A. Cross-site scripting

B. Missing function-level access control

C. Injection

D. Cross-site forgery

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

An injection attack is where a malicious actor will send commands or other arbitrary data through input and data fields with the intent of having the application or system execute the code as part of its normal processing and queries. This can trick an application into exposing data that is not intended or authorized to be exposed, or it could potentially allow an attacker to gain insight into configurations or security controls. Missing function-level access control exists where an application only checks for authorization during the initial login process and does not further validate with each function call. Cross-site request forgery occurs when an attack forces an authenticated user to send forged requests to an application running under their own access and credentials. Cross-site scripting occurs when an attacker is able to send untrusted data to a user’s browser without going through validation processes.

Question 40

Which value refers to the amount of data an organization would need to recover in the event of a BCDR situation in order to reach an acceptable level of operations?

A. SRE

B. RTO

C. RPO

D. RSL

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

The recovery point objective (RPO) is defined as the amount of data a company would need to maintain and recover in order to function at a level acceptable to management. This may or may not be a restoration to full operating capacity, depending on what management deems as crucial and essential.

Question 41

Which of the cloud cross-cutting aspects relates to the requirements placed on the cloud provider by the cloud customer for minimum performance standards and requirements that must be met?

A. Regulatory requirements

B. SLAs

C. Auditability

D. Governance

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

Whereas a contract spells out general terms and costs for services, the SLA is where the real meat of the business relationship and concrete requirements come into play. The SLA spells out in clear terms the minimum requirements for uptime, availability, processes, customer service and support, security controls and requirements, auditing and reporting, and potentially many other areas that define the business relationship and the success of it.

Question 42

The goals of SIEM solution implementation include all of the following, except:

A. Dashboarding

B. Performance enhancement

C. Trend analysis

D. Centralization of log streams

 


Suggested Answer: B

SIEM does not intend to provide any enhancement of performance; in fact, a SIEM solution may decrease performance because of additional overhead. All the rest are goals of SIEM implementations.

Question 43

When dealing with PII, which category pertains to those requirements that can carry legal sanctions or penalties for failure to adequately safeguard the data and address compliance requirements?

A. Contractual

B. Jurisdictional

C. Regulated

D. Legal

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Regulated PII pertains to data that is outlined in law and regulations. Violations of the requirements for the protection of regulated PII can carry legal sanctions or penalties. Contractual PII involves required data protection that is determined by the actual service contract between the cloud provider and cloud customer, rather than outlined by law. Violations of the provisions of contractual PII carry potential financial or contractual implications, but not legal sanctions. Legal and jurisdictional are similar terms to regulated, but neither is the official term used.

Question 44

Which of the following attempts to establish an international standard for eDiscovery processes and best practices?

A. ISO/IEC 31000

B. ISO/IEC 27050

C. ISO/IEC 19888

D. ISO/IEC 27001

 


Suggested Answer: B

ISO/IEC 27050 strives to establish an internationally accepted standard for eDiscovery processes and best practices. It encompasses all steps of the eDiscovery process: identification, preservation, collection, processing, review, analysis, and the final production of the requested data.

Question 45

Which of the following would NOT be considered part of resource pooling with an Infrastructure as a Service implementation?

A. Storage

B. Application

C. Mamory

D. CPU

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

Infrastructure as a Service pools the compute resources for platforms and applications to build upon, including CPU, memory, and storage. Applications are not part of an IaaS offering from the cloud provider.

Question 46

What does static application security testing (SAST) offer as a tool to the testers?

A. Production system scanning

B. Injection attempts

C. Source code access

D. Live testing

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Static application security testing (SAST) is conducted with knowledge of the system, including source code, and is done against offline systems.

Question 47

With a federated identity system, what does the identity provider send information to after a successful authentication?

A. Relying party

B. Service originator

C. Service relay

D. Service relay

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

Upon successful authentication, the identity provider sends an assertion with appropriate attributes to the relying party to grant access and assign appropriate roles to the user. The other terms provided are similar sounding to the correct term but are not actual components of a federated system.

Question 48

Which of the following threat types can occur when encryption is not properly applied or insecure transport mechanisms are used?

A. Security misconfiguration

B. Insecure direct object references

C. Sensitive data exposure

D. Unvalidated redirects and forwards

 


Suggested Answer: C

Sensitive data exposure occurs when information is not properly secured through encryption and secure transport mechanisms; it can quickly become an easy and broad method for attackers to compromise information. Web applications must enforce strong encryption and security controls on the application side, but secure methods of communications with browsers or other clients used to access the information are also required. Security misconfiguration occurs when applications and systems are not properly configured for security, often a result of misapplied or inadequate baselines. Insecure direct object references occur when code references aspects of the infrastructure, especially internal or private systems, and an attacker can use that knowledge to glean more information about the infrastructure. Unvalidated redirects and forwards occur when an application has functions to forward users to other sites, and these functions are not properly secured to validate the data and redirect requests, thus allowing spoofing for malware or phishing attacks.

Question 49

When a system needs to be exposed to the public Internet, what type of secure system would be used to perform only the desired operations?

A. Firewall

B. Proxy

C. Honeypot

D. Bastion

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

A bastion is a system that is exposed to the public Internet to perform a specific function, but it is highly restricted and secured to just that function. Any nonessential services and access are removed from the bastion so that security countermeasures and monitoring can be focused just on the bastion’s specific duties. A honeypot is a system designed to look like a production system to entice attackers, but it does not contain any real data. It is used for learning about types of attacks and enabling countermeasures for them. A firewall is used within a network to limit access between IP addresses and ports. A proxy server provides additional security to and rulesets for network traffic that is allowed to pass through it to a service destination.

Question 50

Which technology can be useful during the "share" phase of the cloud data lifecycle to continue to protect data as it leaves the original system and security controls?

A. IPS

B. WAF

C. DLP

D. IDS

 


Suggested Answer: C

Data loss prevention (DLP) can be applied to data that is leaving the security enclave to continue to enforce access restrictions and policies on other clients and systems.

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