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CCSP Dump Free

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  • CCSP Dump Free – 50 Practice Questions to Sharpen Your Exam Readiness.
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CCSP Dump Free – 50 Practice Questions to Sharpen Your Exam Readiness.

Looking for a reliable way to prepare for your CCSP certification? Our CCSP Dump Free includes 50 exam-style practice questions designed to reflect real test scenarios—helping you study smarter and pass with confidence.

Using an CCSP dump free set of questions can give you an edge in your exam prep by helping you:

  • Understand the format and types of questions you’ll face
  • Pinpoint weak areas and focus your study efforts
  • Boost your confidence with realistic question practice

Below, you will find 50 free questions from our CCSP Dump Free collection. These cover key topics and are structured to simulate the difficulty level of the real exam, making them a valuable tool for review or final prep.

Question 1

What does static application security testing (SAST) offer as a tool to the testers that makes it unique compared to other common security testing methodologies?

A. Live testing

B. Source code access

C. Production system scanning

D. Injection attempts

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

Static application security testing (SAST) is conducted against offline systems with previous knowledge of them, including their source code. Live testing is not part of static testing but rather is associated with dynamic testing. Production system scanning is not appropriate because static testing is done against offline systems.
Injection attempts are done with many different types of testing and are not unique to one particular type. It is therefore not the best answer to the question.

Question 2

Which jurisdiction lacks specific and comprehensive privacy laws at a national or top level of legal authority?

A. European Union

B. Germany

C. Russia

D. United States

 


Suggested Answer: D

The United States lacks a single comprehensive law at the federal level addressing data security and privacy, but there are multiple federal laws that deal with different industries.

Question 3

Which of the following can be useful for protecting cloud customers from a denial-of-service (DoS) attack against another customer hosted in the same cloud?

A. Reservations

B. Measured service

C. Limits

D. Shares

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: C

Reservations ensure that a minimum level of resources will always be available to a cloud customer for them to start and operate their services. In the event of a
DoS attack against one customer, they can guarantee that the other customers will still be able to operate.

Question 4

Which of the following is considered an internal redundancy for a data center?

A. Power feeds

B. Chillers

C. Network circuits

D. Generators

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: C

Chillers and cooling systems are internal to a data center and its operations, and as such they are considered an internal redundancy. Power feeds, network circuits, and generators are all external to a data center and provide utility services to them, which makes them an external redundancy.

Question 5

Which of the cloud deployment models offers the easiest initial setup and access for the cloud customer?

A. Hybrid

B. Community

C. Private

D. Public

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Because the public cloud model is available to everyone, in most instances all a customer will need to do to gain access is set up an account and provide a credit card number through the service’s web portal. No additional contract negotiations, agreements, or specific group memberships are typically needed to get started.

Question 6

What does the "SOC" acronym refer to with audit reports?

A. Service Origin Confidentiality

B. System Organization Confidentiality

C. Service Organizational Control

D. System Organization Control

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: D

 

Question 7

Which of the following storage types is most closely associated with a database-type storage implementation?

A. Object

B. Unstructured

C. Volume

D. Structured

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Structured storage involves organized and categorized data, which most closely resembles and operates like a database system would.

Question 8

Which security concept is focused on the trustworthiness of data?

A. Integrity

B. Availability

C. Nonrepudiation

D. Confidentiality

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

Integrity is focused on the trustworthiness of data as well as the prevention of unauthorized modification or tampering of it. A prime consideration for maintaining integrity is an emphasis on the change management and configuration management aspects of operations, so that all modifications are predictable, tracked, logged, and verified, whether they are performed by actual human users or systems processes and scripts.

Question 9

APIs are defined as which of the following?

A. A set of protocols, and tools for building software applications to access a web-based software application or tool

B. A set of routines, standards, protocols, and tools for building software applications to access a web-based software application or tool

C. A set of standards for building software applications to access a web-based software application or tool

D. A set of routines and tools for building software applications to access web-based software applications

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

All the answers are true, but B is the most complete.

Question 10

Where is a DLP solution generally installed when utilized for monitoring data in transit?

A. Network perimeter

B. Database server

C. Application server

D. Web server

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

To monitor data in transit, a DLP solution would optimally be installed at the network perimeter, to ensure that data leaving the network through various protocols conforms to security controls and policies. An application server or a web server would be more appropriate for monitoring data in use, and a database server would be an example of a location appropriate for monitoring data at rest.

Question 11

What expectation of data custodians is made much more challenging by a cloud implementation, especially with PaaS or SaaS?

A. Data classification

B. Knowledge of systems

C. Access to data

D. Encryption requirements

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

Under the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, data custodians are assumed and expected to have full and comprehensive knowledge of the internal design and architecture of their systems. In a cloud environment, especially with PaaS and SaaS, it is impossible for the data custodian to have this knowledge because those systems are controlled by the cloud provider and protected as proprietary knowledge.

Question 12

Which regulatory system pertains to the protection of healthcare data?

A. HIPAA

B. HAS

C. HITECH

D. HFCA

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) sets stringent requirements in the United States for the protection of healthcare records.

Question 13

Which of the following threat types can occur when an application does not properly validate input and can be leveraged to send users to malicious sites that appear to be legitimate?

A. Unvalidated redirects and forwards

B. Insecure direct object references

C. Security miscomfiguration

D. Sensitive data exposure

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

Many web applications offer redirect or forward pages that send users to different, external sites. If these pages are not properly secured and validated, attackers can use the application to forward users off to sites for phishing or malware attempts. These attempts can often be more successful than direct phishing attempts because users will trust the site or application that sent them there, and they will assume it has been properly validated and approved by the trusted application’s owners or operators. Security misconfiguration occurs when applications and systems are not properly configured for security–often a result of misapplied or inadequate baselines. Insecure direct object references occur when code references aspects of the infrastructure, especially internal or private systems, and an attacker can use that knowledge to glean more information about the infrastructure. Sensitive data exposure occurs when an application does not use sufficient encryption and other security controls to protect sensitive application data.

Question 14

Which of the following is not a component of contractual PII?

A. Scope of processing

B. Value of data

C. Location of data

D. Use of subcontractors

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: B

The value of data itself has nothing to do with it being considered a part of contractual

Question 15

If a company needed to guarantee through contract and SLAs that a cloud provider would always have available sufficient resources to start their services and provide a certain level of provisioning, what would the contract need to refer to?

A. Limit

B. Reservation

C. Assurance

D. Guarantee

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

A reservation guarantees to a cloud customer that they will have access to a minimal level of resources to run their systems, which will help mitigate against DoS attacks or systems that consume high levels of resources. A limit refers to the enforcement of a maximum level of resources that can be consumed by or allocated to a cloud customer, service, or system. Both guarantee and assurance are terms that sound similar to reservation, but they are not correct choices.

Question 16

The European Union passed the first major regulation declaring data privacy to be a human right. In what year did it go into effect?

A. 2010

B. 2000

C. 1995

D. 1990

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Adopted in 1995, Directive 95/46 EC establishes strong data protection and policy requirements, including the declaring of data privacy to be a human right. It establishes that an individual has the right to be notified when their personal data is being access or processed, that it only will ever be accessed for legitimate purposes, and that data will only be accessed to the exact extent it needs to be for the particular process or request.

Question 17

A variety of security systems can be integrated within a network--some that just monitor for threats and issue alerts, and others that take action based on signatures, behavior, and other types of rules to actively stop potential threats.
Which of the following types of technologies is best described here?

A. IDS

B. IPS

C. Proxy

D. Firewall

 


Suggested Answer: B

An intrusion prevention system (IPS) can inspect traffic and detect any suspicious traffic based on a variety of factors, but it can also actively block such traffic.
Although an IDS can detect the same types of suspicious traffic as an IPS, it is only design to alert, not to block. A firewall is only concerned with IP addresses, ports, and protocols; it cannot be used for the signature-based detection of traffic. A proxy can limit or direct traffic based on more extensive factors than a network firewall can, but it’s not capable of using the same signature detection rules as an IPS.

Question 18

Which of the following are considered to be the building blocks of cloud computing?

A. CPU, RAM, storage, and networking

B. Data, CPU, RAM, and access control

C. Data, access control, virtualization, and services

D. Storage, networking, printing, and virtualization

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

 

Question 19

What is the minimum regularity for testing a BCDR plan to meet best practices?

A. Once year

B. Once a month

C. Every six months

D. When the budget allows it

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

Best practices and industry standards dictate that a BCDR solution should be tested at least once a year, though specific regulatory requirements may dictate more regular testing. The BCDR plan should also be tested whenever a major modification to a system occurs.

Question 20

What concept does the "D" represent with the STRIDE threat model?

A. Data loss

B. Denial of service

C. Data breach

D. Distributed

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

Any application can be a possible target of denial-of-service (DoS) attacks. From the application side, the developers should minimize how many operations are performed for non-authenticated users. This will keep the application running as quickly as possible and using the least amount of system resources to help minimize the impact of any such attacks.

Question 21

Which of the following roles is responsible for preparing systems for the cloud, administering and monitoring services, and managing inventory and assets?

A. Cloud service business manager

B. Cloud service deployment manager

C. Cloud service operations manager

D. Cloud service manager

 


Suggested Answer: C

The cloud service operations manager is responsible for preparing systems for the cloud, administering and monitoring services, providing audit data as requested or required, and managing inventory and assets.

Question 22

Which of the following is NOT a commonly used communications method within cloud environments to secure data in transit?

A. IPSec

B. HTTPS

C. VPN

D. DNSSEC

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

DNSSEC is used as a security extension to DNS lookup queries in order to ensure the authenticity and authoritativeness of hostname resolutions, in order to prevent spoofing and redirection of traffic. Although it is a very important concept to be employed for security practices, it is not used to secure or encrypt data transmissions. HTTPS is the most commonly used security mechanism for data communications between clients and websites and web services. IPSec is less commonly used, but is also intended to secure communications between servers. VPN is commonly used to secure traffic into a network area or subnet for developers and administrative users.

Question 23

From a legal perspective, what is the most important first step after an eDiscovery order has been received by the cloud provider?

A. Notification

B. Key identification

C. Data collection

D. Virtual image snapshots

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

The contract should include requirements for notification by the cloud provider to the cloud customer upon the receipt of such an order. This serves a few important purposes. First, it keeps communication and trust open between the cloud provider and cloud customers. Second, and more importantly, it allows the cloud customer to potentially challenge the order if they feel they have the grounds or desire to do so.

Question 24

What concept and operational process must be spelled out clearly, as far as roles and responsibilities go, between the cloud provider and cloud customer for the mitigation of any problems or security events?

A. Incident response

B. Problem management

C. Change management

D. Conflict response

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

Incident response is the process through which security or operational issues are handled, including and coordination with and communication to the appropriate stakeholders. None of the other terms provided is the correct response.

Question 25

What masking strategy involves the replacing of sensitive data at the time it is accessed and used as it flows between the data and application layers of a service?

A. Active

B. Static

C. Dynamic

D. Transactional

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Dynamic masking involves the live replacing of sensitive data fields during transactional use between the data and application layers of a service. Static masking involves creating a full data set with the sensitive data fields masked, but is not done during live transactions like dynamic masking. Active and transactional are offered as similar types of answers but are not types of masking.

Question 26

There is a large gap between the privacy laws of the United States and those of the European Union. Bridging this gap is necessary for American companies to do business with European companies and in European markets in many situations, as the American companies are required to comply with the stricter requirements.
Which US program was designed to help companies overcome these differences?

A. SOX

B. HIPAA

C. GLBA

D. Safe Harbor

 


Suggested Answer: D

The Safe Harbor regulations were developed by the Department of Commerce and are meant to serve as a way to bridge the gap between privacy regulations of the European Union and the United States. Due to the lack of adequate privacy laws and protection on the federal level in the US, European privacy regulations generally prohibit the exporting of PII from Europe to the United States. Participation in the Safe Harbor program is voluntary on the part of US organizations.
These organizations must conform to specific requirements and policies that mirror those from the EU, thus possibly fulfilling the EU requirements for data sharing and export. This way, American businesses can be allowed to serve customers in the EU. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) pertains to the protection of patient medical records and privacy. The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) focuses on the use of PII within financial institutions. The
Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) regulates the financial and accounting practices used by organizations in order to protect shareholders from improper practices and errors.

Question 27

Which of the following threat types can occur when baselines are not appropriately applied or when unauthorized changes are made?

A. Security misconfiguration

B. Insecure direct object references

C. Unvalidated redirects and forwards

D. Sensitive data exposure

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

Security misconfigurations occur when applications and systems are not properly configured or maintained in a secure manner. This can be due to a shortcoming in security baselines or configurations, unauthorized changes to system configurations, or a failure to patch and upgrade systems as the vendor releases security patches. Insecure direct object references occur when code references aspects of the infrastructure, especially internal or private systems, and an attacker can use that knowledge to glean more information about the infrastructure. Unvalidated redirects and forwards occur when an application has functions to forward users to other sites, and these functions are not properly secured to validate the data and redirect requests, allowing spoofing for malware or phishing attacks.
Sensitive data exposure occurs when an application does not use sufficient encryption and other security controls to protect sensitive application data.

Question 28

Which cloud storage type requires special consideration on the part of the cloud customer to ensure they do not program themselves into a vendor lock-in situation?

A. Unstructured

B. Object

C. Volume

D. Structured

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: B

Structured storage is designed, maintained, and implemented by a cloud service provider as part of a PaaS offering. It is specific to that cloud provider and the way they have opted to implement systems, so special care is required to ensure that applications are not designed in a way that will lock the cloud customer into a specific cloud provider with that dependency. Unstructured storage for auxiliary files would not lock a customer into a specific provider. With volume and object storage, because the cloud customer maintains their own systems with IaaS, moving and replicating to a different cloud provider would be very easy.

Question 29

Which type of testing uses the same strategies and toolsets that hackers would use?

A. Static

B. Malicious

C. Penetration

D. Dynamic

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Penetration testing involves using the same strategies and toolsets that hackers would use against a system to discovery potential vulnerabilities. Although the term malicious captures much of the intent of penetration testing from the perspective of an attacker, it is not the best answer. Static and dynamic are two types of system testing–where static is done offline and with knowledge of the system, and dynamic is done on a live system without any previous knowledge is associated–but neither describes the type of testing being asked for in the question.

Question 30

How many additional DNS queries are needed when DNSSEC integrity checks are added?

A. Three

B. Zero

C. One

D. Two

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

DNSSEC does not require any additional DNS queries to be performed. The DNSSEC integrity checks and validations are all performed as part of the single DNS lookup resolution.

Question 31

Different certifications and standards take different approaches to data center design and operations. Although many traditional approaches use a tiered methodology, which of the following utilizes a macro-level approach to data center design?

A. IDCA

B. BICSI

C. Uptime Institute

D. NFPA

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

The Infinity Paradigm of the International Data Center Authority (IDCA) takes a macro-level approach to data center design. The IDCA does not use a specific, focused approach on specific components to achieve tier status. Building Industry Consulting Services International (BICSI) issues certifications for data center cabling. The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) publishes a broad range of fire safety and design standards for many different types of facilities. The
Uptime Institute publishes the most widely known and used standard for data center topologies and tiers.

Question 32

What changes are necessary to application code in order to implement DNSSEC?

A. Adding encryption modules

B. Implementing certificate validations

C. Additional DNS lookups

D. No changes are needed.

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

To implement DNSSEC, no additional changes are needed to applications or their code because the integrity checks are all performed at the system level.

Question 33

Which value refers to the amount of time it takes to recover operations in a BCDR situation to meet management's objectives?

A. RSL

B. RPO

C. SRE

D. RTO

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

The recovery time objective (RTO) is a measure of the amount of time it would take to recover operations in the event of a disaster to the point where management’s objectives are met for BCDR.

Question 34

What is a standard configuration and policy set that is applied to systems and virtual machines called?

A. Standardization

B. Baseline

C. Hardening

D. Redline

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

The most common and efficient manner of securing operating systems is through the use of baselines. A baseline is a standardized and understood set of base configurations and settings. When a new system is built or a new virtual machine is established, baselines will be applied to a new image to ensure the base configuration meets organizational policy and regulatory requirements.

Question 35

Many of the traditional concepts of systems and services for a traditional data center also apply to the cloud. Both are built around key computing concepts.
Which of the following compromise the two facets of computing?

A. CPU and software

B. CPU and storage

C. CPU and memory

D. Memory and networking

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

The CPU and memory resources of an environment together comprise its “computing” resources. Cloud environments, especially public clouds, are enormous pools of resources for computing and are typically divided among a large number of customers with constantly changing needs and demands. Although storage and networking are core components of a cloud environment, they do not comprise its computing core. Software, much like within a traditional data center, is highly subjective based on the application, system, service, or cloud computing model used; however, it is not one of the core cloud components.

Question 36

Legal controls refer to which of the following?

A. ISO 27001

B. PCI DSS

C. NIST 800-53r4

D. Controls designed to comply with laws and regulations related to the cloud environment

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Legal controls are those controls that are designed to comply with laws and regulations whether they be local or international.

Question 37

The application normative framework is best described as which of the following?

A. A superset of the ONF

B. A stand-alone framework for storing security practices for the ONF

C. The complete ONF

D. A subnet of the ONF

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Remember, there is a one-to-many ratio of ONF to ANF; each organization has one ONF and many ANFs (one for each application in the organization).
Therefore, the ANF is a subset of the ONF.

Question 38

What does dynamic application security testing (DAST) NOT entail?

A. Scanning

B. Probing

C. Discovery

D. Knowledge of the system

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Dynamic application security testing (DAST) is considered “black box” testing and begins with no inside knowledge of the application or its configurations.
Everything about the application must be discovered during the testing.

Question 39

Which of the following is not an example of a highly regulated environment?

A. Financial services

B. Healthcare

C. Public companies

D. Wholesale or distribution

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Wholesalers or distributors are generally not regulated, although the products they sell may be.

Question 40

Clustered systems can be used to ensure high availability and load balancing across individual systems through a variety of methodologies.
What process is used within a clustered system to ensure proper load balancing and to maintain the health of the overall system to provide high availability?

A. Distributed clustering

B. Distributed balancing

C. Distributed optimization

D. Distributed resource scheduling

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Distributed resource scheduling (DRS) is used within all clustered systems as the method for providing high availability, scaling, management, workload distribution, and the balancing of jobs and processes. None of the other choices is the correct term in this case.

Question 41

From a security perspective, which of the following is a major concern when evaluating possible BCDR solutions?

A. Access provisioning

B. Auditing

C. Jurisdictions

D. Authorization

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

When a security professional is considering cloud solutions for BCDR, a top concern is the jurisdiction where the cloud systems are hosted. If the jurisdiction is different from where the production systems are hosted, they may be subjected to different regulations and controls, which would make a seamless BCDR solution far more difficult.

Question 42

Which protocol operates at the network layer and provides for full point-to-point encryption of all communications and transmissions?

A. IPSec

B. VPN

C. SSL

D. TLS

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

IPSec is a protocol for encrypting and authenticating packets during transmission between two parties and can involve any type of device, application, or service.
The protocol performs both the authentication and negotiation of security policies between the two parties at the start of the connection and then maintains these policies throughout the lifetime of the connection. TLS operates at the application layer, not the network layer, and is widely used to secure communications between two parties. SSL is similar to TLS but has been deprecated. Although a VPN allows a secure channel for communications into a private network from an outside location, it’s not a protocol.

Question 43

Your IT steering committee has, at a high level, approved your project to begin using cloud services. However, the committee is concerned with getting locked into a single cloud provider and has flagged the ability to easily move between cloud providers as a top priority. It also wants to save costs by reusing components.
Which cross-cutting aspect of cloud computing would be your primary focus as your project plan continues to develop and you begin to evaluate cloud providers?

A. Interoperability

B. Resiliency

C. Scalability

D. Portability

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: D

Interoperability is ability to easily move between cloud providers, by either moving or reusing components and services. This can pertain to any cloud deployment model, and it gives organizations the ability to constantly evaluate costs and services as well as move their business to another cloud provider as needed or desired. Portability relates to the wholesale moving of services from one cloud provider to another, not necessarily the reuse of components or services for other purposes. Although resiliency is not an official concept within cloud computing, it certainly would be found throughout other topics such as elasticity, auto-scaling, and resource pooling. Scalability pertains to changing resource allocations to a service to meet current demand, either upward or downward in scope.

Question 44

Although much of the attention given to data security is focused on keeping data private and only accessible by authorized individuals, of equal importance is the trustworthiness of the data.
Which concept encapsulates this?

A. Validity

B. Integrity

C. Accessibility

D. Confidentiality

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

Integrity refers to the trustworthiness of data and whether its format and values are true and have not been corrupted or otherwise altered through unauthorized means. Confidentiality refers to keeping data from being access or viewed by unauthorized parties. Accessibility means that data is available and ready when needed by a user or service. Validity can mean a variety of things that are somewhat similar to integrity, but it’s not the most appropriate answer in this case.

Question 45

All the following are data analytics modes, except:

A. Datamining

B. Agile business intelligence

C. Refractory iterations

D. Real-time analytics

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

All the others are data analytics methods, but ג€refractory iterationsג€ is a nonsense term thrown in as a red herring.

Question 46

What does static application security testing (SAST) offer as a tool to the testers?

A. Production system scanning

B. Injection attempts

C. Source code access

D. Live testing

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Static application security testing (SAST) is conducted with knowledge of the system, including source code, and is done against offline systems.

Question 47

Hardening the operating system refers to all of the following except:

A. Limiting administrator access

B. Closing unused ports

C. Removing antimalware agents

D. Removing unnecessary services and libraries

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

Removing antimalware agents. Hardening the operating system means making it more secure. Limiting administrator access, closing unused ports, and removing unnecessary services and libraries all have the potential to make an OS more secure. But removing antimalware agents would actually make the system less secure. If anything, antimalware agents should be added, not removed.

Question 48

Which of the following technologies is NOT commonly used for accessing systems and services in a cloud environment in a secure manner?

A. KVM

B. HTTPS

C. VPN

D. TLS

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

A keyboard-video-mouse (KVM) system is commonly used for directly accessing server terminals in a data center. It is not a method that would be possible within a cloud environment, primarily due to the use virtualized systems, but also because only the cloud provider’s staff would be allowed the physical access to hardware systems that’s provided by a KVM. Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS), virtual private network (VPN), and Transport Layer Security (TLS) are all technologies and protocols that are widely used with cloud implementations for secure access to systems and services.

Question 49

Which of the following publishes the most commonly used standard for data center design in regard to tiers and topologies?

A. IDCA

B. Uptime Institute

C. NFPA

D. BICSI

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

The Uptime Institute publishes the most commonly used and widely known standard on data center tiers and topologies. It is based on a series of four tiers, with each progressive increase in number representing more stringent, reliable, and redundant systems for security, connectivity, fault tolerance, redundancy, and cooling.

Question 50

Upon completing a risk analysis, a company has four different approaches to addressing risk. Which approach it takes will be based on costs, available options, and adherence to any regulatory requirements from independent audits.
Which of the following groupings correctly represents the four possible approaches?

A. Accept, avoid, transfer, mitigate

B. Accept, deny, transfer, mitigate

C. Accept, deny, mitigate, revise

D. Accept, dismiss, transfer, mitigate

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

The four possible approaches to risk are as follows: accept (do not patch and continue with the risk), avoid (implement solutions to prevent the risk from occurring), transfer (take out insurance), and mitigate (change configurations or patch to resolve the risk). Each of these answers contains at least one incorrect approach name.

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