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  • CRISC Mock Test Free – 50 Realistic Questions to Prepare with Confidence.
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CRISC Mock Test Free – 50 Realistic Questions to Prepare with Confidence.

Getting ready for your CRISC certification exam? Start your preparation the smart way with our CRISC Mock Test Free – a carefully crafted set of 50 realistic, exam-style questions to help you practice effectively and boost your confidence.

Using a mock test free for CRISC exam is one of the best ways to:

  • Familiarize yourself with the actual exam format and question style
  • Identify areas where you need more review
  • Strengthen your time management and test-taking strategy

Below, you will find 50 free questions from our CRISC Mock Test Free resource. These questions are structured to reflect the real exam’s difficulty and content areas, helping you assess your readiness accurately.

Question 1

Which of the following is the STRONGEST indication an organization has ethics management issues?

A. Employees face sanctions for not signing the organization’s acceptable use policy.

B. The organization has only two lines of defense.

C. Internal IT auditors report to the chief information security officer (CISO).

D. Employees do not report IT risk issues for fear of consequences.

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 2

To communicate the risk associated with IT in business terms, which of the following MUST be defined?

A. Risk appetite of the organization

B. Compliance objectives

C. Organizational objectives

D. Inherent and residual risk

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 3

Which of the following is the MOST important success factor when introducing risk management in an organization?

A. Establishing executive management support

B. Implementing a risk register

C. Assigning risk ownership

D. Defining a risk mitigation strategy and plan

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 4

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an organization's cybersecurity program?

A. Percentage of systems being monitored

B. Average time to contain security incidents

C. Number of false positives reported

D. Number of personnel dedicated to security monitoring

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 5

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of maintaining an information asset inventory?

A. To facilitate risk assessments

B. To protect information assets

C. To provide input to business impact analyses (BIAs)

D. To manage information asset licensing

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 6

Which of the following is MOST important to identify when developing top-down risk scenarios?

A. Hypothetical scenarios

B. Key procedure control gaps

C. Senior management’s risk appetite

D. Business objectives

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 7

Which of these documents is MOST important to request from a cloud service provider during a vendor risk assessment?

A. Business impact analysis (BIA)

B. Service level agreement (SLA)

C. Independent audit report

D. Nondisclosure agreement (NDA)

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 8

Which of the following stakeholders define risk tolerance for an enterprise?

A. The board and executive management

B. IT compliance and IT audit

C. Regulators and shareholders

D. Enterprise risk management (ERM)

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 9

A risk practitioner has been hired to establish risk management practices to be embedded across an organization. Which of the following should be the FIRST course of action?

A. Integrate risk management into operational procedures.

B. Engage key stakeholders in risk identification.

C. Implement risk management controls throughout the organization.

D. Establish an organization-wide risk taxonomy.

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 10

You are the project manager of GHT project. You identified a risk of noncompliance with regulations due to missing of a number of relatively simple procedures.
The response requires creating the missing procedures and implementing them. In which of the following risk response prioritization should this case be categorized?

A. Business case to be made

B. Quick win

C. Risk avoidance

D. Deferrals

 


Suggested Answer: B

This is categorized as a “quick win” because the allocation of existing resources or a minor resource investment provides measurable benefits. Quick win is very effective and efficient response that addresses medium to high risk.
Incorrect Answers:
A: “Business case to be made” requires careful analysis and management decisions on investments that are more expensive or difficult risk responses to medium to high risk. Here in this scenario, there is only minor investment that is why, it is not “business case to be made”.
C: Risk avoidance is a type of risk response and not risk response prioritization option.
D: Deferral addresses costly risk response to a low risk, and hence in this specified scenario it is not used.

 

Question 11

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:

A. inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them

B. inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them

C. inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures

D. recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 12

Which of the following would BEST provide early warning of a high-risk condition?

A. Risk assessment

B. Key risk indicator (KRI)

C. Risk register

D. Key performance indicator (KPI)

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 13

Which of the following provides the BEST assurance of the effectiveness of internal controls?

A. Balanced scorecard review

B. Control self-assessments (CSAs)

C. Compliance training metrics

D. Continuous monitoring

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 14

Which of the following will be the GREATEST concern when assessing the risk profile of an organization?

A. The risk profile does not contain historical loss data.

B. The risk profile was last reviewed two years ago.

C. The risk profile was not updated after a recent incident.

D. The risk profile was developed without using industry standards.

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 15

Which of the following BEST ensures that a firewall is configured in compliance with an enterprise's security policy?

A. Interview the firewall administrator.

B. Review the actual procedures.

C. Review the device’s log file for recent attacks.

D. Review the parameter settings.

 


Suggested Answer: D

A review of the parameter settings will provide a good basis for comparison of the actual configuration to the security policy and will provide reliable audit evidence documentation.
Incorrect Answers:
A: While interviewing the firewall administrator may provide a good process overview, it does not reliably confirm that the firewall configuration complies with the enterprise’s security policy.
B: While procedures may provide a good understanding of how the firewall is supposed to be managed, they do not reliably confirm that the firewall configuration complies with the enterprise’s security policy.
C: While reviewing the device’s log file for recent attacks may provide indirect evidence about the fact that logging is enabled, it does not reliably confirm that the firewall configuration complies with the enterprise’s security policy.

 

Question 16

Which of the following is the MOST effective way for a large and diversified organization to minimize risk associated with unauthorized software on company devices?

A. Perform frequent internal audits of enterprise IT infrastructure.

B. Scan end points for applications not included in the asset inventory.

C. Conduct frequent reviews of software licenses.

D. Prohibit the use of cloud-based virtual desktop software.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 17

A process maturity model is MOST useful to the risk management process because it helps:

A. reduce audit and regulatory findings

B. determine the cost of control improvements

C. benchmark maturity against industry standards

D. determine the gap between actual and desired state

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 18

Your project is an agricultural-based project that deals with plant irrigation systems. You have discovered a byproduct in your project that your organization could use to make a profit. If your organization seizes this opportunity, it would be an example of what risk response?

A. Enhancing

B. Positive

C. Opportunistic

D. Exploiting

 


Suggested Answer: D

This is an example of exploiting a positive risk – a by-product of a project is an excellent example of exploiting a risk. Exploit response is one of the strategies to negate risks or threats that appear in a project. This strategy may be selected for risks with positive impacts where the organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized. Exploiting a risk event provides opportunities for positive impact on a project. Assigning more talented resources to the project to reduce the time to completion is an example of exploit response.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Enhancing is a positive risk response that describes actions taken to increase the odds of a risk event to happen.
B: This is an example of a positive risk, but positive is not a risk response.
C: Opportunistic is not a valid risk response.

 

Question 19

The design of procedures to prevent fraudulent transactions within an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system should be based on:

A. benchmarking criteria.

B. stakeholder risk tolerance.

C. the control environment.

D. suppliers used by the organization.

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 20

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to confirm when reviewing the disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

A. The DRP covers relevant scenarios.

B. The business continuity plan (BCP) has been documented.

C. Senior management has approved the DRP.

D. The DRP has been tested by an independent third party.

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 21

In response to recent security incidents, the IT risk management team is promoting a global security plan that defines controls to be implemented in multiple regions. Which of the following BEST enables the successful deployment of this plan?

A. Obtain the approval of each regional head.

B. Engage an external auditor in each region before deployment.

C. Provide each region with adequate funding.

D. Allow each region to adapt the plan to its local requirements

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 22

What is the BEST recommendation to reduce the risk associated with potential system compromise when a vendor stops releasing security patches and updates for a business-critical legacy system?

A. Ensure regular backups take place.

B. Install antivirus software on the system.

C. Virtualize the system in the cloud.

D. Segment the system on its own network.

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 23

You are completing the qualitative risk analysis process with your project team and are relying on the risk management plan to help you determine the budget, schedule for risk management, and risk categories. You discover that the risk categories have not been created. When the risk categories should have been created?

A. Define scope process

B. Risk identification process

C. Plan risk management process

D. Create work breakdown structure process

 


Suggested Answer: C

The plan risk management process is when risk categories were to be defined. If they were not defined, as in this scenario, it is acceptable to define the categories as part of the qualitative risk analysis process.
Plan risk management is the process of defining the way to conduct the risk management activities. Planning is essential for providing sufficient resources and time for risk management activities, and to establish an agreed-upon basis of evaluating risks. This process should start as soon as project is conceived and should be completed early during project planning.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risk categories are not defined through the define scope process.
B: Risk categories are not defined through the risk identification process.
D: Risk categories are not defined through the create work breakdown structure process.

 

Question 24

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) using log analysis?

A. Collecting logs from the entire set of IT systems

B. Providing accurate logs in a timely manner

C. Implementing an automated log analysis tool

D. Obtaining logs in an easily readable format

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 25

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable information to ensure a newly acquired company has appropriate IT controls in place?

A. Vulnerability assessment

B. Information system audit

C. Penetration testing

D. IT risk assessment

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 26

Which among the following is the MOST crucial part of risk management process?

A. Risk communication

B. Auditing

C. Risk monitoring

D. Risk mitigation

 


Suggested Answer: A

Risk communication is a critical part in the risk management process. People are naturally uncomfortable talking about risk and tend to put off admitting that risk is involved and communicating about issues; incidents; and; eventually, even crises.
If risk is to be managed and mitigated, it must first be discussed and effectively communicated throughout an enterprise.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Auditing is done to test the overall risk management process and the planned risk responses. So it is the very last phase after completion of risk management process.
C: Risk monitoring is the last phase to complete risk management process, and for proper management of risk it should be communicated properly. Hence risk communication is the most crucial step.
D: Risk mitigation is one of the phases of risk management process for effective mitigation of risk it should be first communicated throughout an enterprise.

 

Question 27

The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for:

A. data classification and labeling.

B. data mining and analytics.

C. data retention and destruction.

D. data logging and monitoring.

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 28

Which of the following is true for Cost Performance Index (CPI)?

A. If the CPI > 1, it indicates better than expected performance of project

B. CPI = Earned Value (EV) * Actual Cost (AC)

C. It is used to measure performance of schedule

D. If the CPI = 1, it indicates poor performance of project

 


Suggested Answer: A

Cost performance index (CPI) is used to calculate performance efficiencies of project. It is used in trend analysis to predict future performance. CPI is the ratio of earned value to actual cost.
If the CPI value is greater than 1, it indicates better than expected performance, whereas if the value is less than 1, it shows poor performance.
Incorrect Answers:
B: CPI is the ratio of earned value to actual cost, i.e., CPI = Earned Value (EV) / Actual Cost (AC).
C: Cost performance index (CPI) is used to calculate performance efficiencies of project and not its schedule.
D: The CPI value of 1 indicates that the project is right on target.

 

Question 29

Which of the following BEST facilitates the mitigation of identified gaps between current and desired risk environment states?

A. Develop a risk treatment plan.

B. Include the current and desired states in the risk register.

C. Review results of prior risk assessments.

D. Validate organizational risk appetite.

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 30

To effectively support business decisions, an IT risk register MUST:

A. reflect the results of risk assessments.

B. effectively support a business maturity model.

C. be available to operational risk groups.

D. be reviewed by the IT steering committee.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 31

Which of the following is the PRIMARY consideration when establishing an organization's risk management methodology?

A. Risk tolerance level

B. Benchmarking information

C. Resource requirements

D. Business context

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 32

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's PRIMARY consideration when evaluating the possible impact of an adverse event affecting corporate information assets?

A. Authentication and authorization requirements for personnel accessing the assets

B. Potential regulatory fines as a result of the adverse event

C. The amount of data processed by the assets

D. Criticality classification of the assets needed for normal business operations

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 33

Which of the following attributes of a key risk indicator (KRI) is MOST important?

A. Repeatable

B. Qualitative

C. Automated

D. Quantitative

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 34

An organization moved one of its applications to a public cloud, but after migration decided to move it back on-premise after an issue caused the application to be down for one day. What does this scenario indicate?

A. The organization has high risk tolerance.

B. The organization has low risk tolerance.

C. The organization has high risk appetite.

D. The organization has low risk appetite.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 35

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern with the use of a vulnerability scanning tool?

A. Increased time to remediate vulnerabilities

B. Inaccurate reporting of results

C. Increased number of vulnerabilities

D. Network performance degradation

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 36

Which of the following is true for Single loss expectancy (SLE), Annual rate of occurrence (ARO), and Annual loss expectancy (ALE)?

A. ALE= ARO/SLE

B. ARO= SLE/ALE

C. ARO= ALE*SLE

D. ALE= ARO*SLE

 


Suggested Answer: D

A quantitative risk assessment quantifies risk in terms of numbers such as dollar values. This involves gathering data and then entering it into standard formulas.
The results can help in identifying the priority of risks. These results are also used to determine the effectiveness of controls. Some of the terms associated with quantitative risk assessments are:
✑ Single loss expectancy (SLE)-It refers to the total loss expected from a single incident. This incident can occur when vulnerability is being exploited by threat.
The loss is expressed as a dollar value such as $1,000. It includes the value of data, software, and hardware. SLE = Asset value * Exposure factor
✑ Annual rate of occurrence (ARO)-It refers to the number of times expected for an incident to occur in a year. If an incident occurred twice a month in the past year, the ARO is 24. Assuming nothing changes, it is likely that it will occur 24 times next year. Annual loss expectancy (ALE)-It is the expected loss for a year.
ALE is calculated by multiplying SLE with ARO. Because SLE is a given in a dollar value, ALE is also given in a dollar value. For example, if the SLE is $1,000 and the ARO is 24, the ALE is $24,000.
✑ ALE = SLE * ARO Safeguard value-This is the cost of a control. Controls are used to mitigate risk. For example, antivirus software of an average cost of $50 for each computer. If there are 50 computers, the safeguard value is $2,500. A, B, C: These are wrong formulas and are not used in quantitative risk assessment.

 

Question 37

What are the PRIMARY requirements for developing risk scenarios?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. (Choose two.)

A. Potential threats and vulnerabilities that could lead to loss events

B. Determination of the value of an asset at risk

C. Determination of actors that has potential to generate risk

D. Determination of threat type

 


Suggested Answer: AB

Creating a scenario requires determination of the value of an asset or a business process at risk and the potential threats and vulnerabilities that could cause loss.
The risk scenario should be assessed for relevance and realism, and then entered into the risk register if found to be relevant.
In practice following steps are involved in risk scenario development:
✑ First determine manageable set of scenarios, which include:
✑ Frequently occurring scenarios in the industry or product area.
✑ Scenarios representing threat sources that are increasing in count or severity level.
✑ Scenarios involving legal and regulatory requirements applicable to the business.
✑ After determining manageable risk scenarios, perform a validation against the business objectives of the entity.
✑ Based on this validation, refine the selected scenarios and then detail them to a level in line with the criticality of the entity.
✑ Lower down the number of scenarios to a manageable set. Manageable does not signify a fixed number, but should be in line with the overall importance and criticality of the unit.
✑ Risk factors kept in a register so that they can be reevaluated in the next iteration and included for detailed analysis if they have become relevant at that time.
✑ Risk factors kept in a register so that they can be reevaluated in the next iteration and included for detailed analysis if they have become relevant at that time.
✑ Include an unspecified event in the scenarios, that is, address an incident not covered by other scenarios.
Incorrect Answers:
C, D: Determination of actors and threat type are not the primary requirements for developing risk scenarios, but are the components that are determined during risk scenario development.

 

Question 38

An organization has an internal control that requires all access for employees be removed within 15 days of their termination date. Which of the following should the risk practitioner use to monitor adherence to the 15-day threshold?

A. Service level agreement (SLA)

B. Operation level agreement (OLA)

C. Key performance indicator (KPI)

D. Key risk indicator (KRI)

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 39

Which of the following is the MOST important information for determining inherent risk?

A. The effectiveness of controls in place to prevent the risk

B. Loss the risk has historically caused

C. The IT risk manager’s view of emerging risk

D. The maturity of the control environment

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 40

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of the information system control?

A. Business objectives are achieved and undesired risk events are detected and corrected

B. Ensuring effective and efficient operations

C. Developing business continuity and disaster recovery plans

D. Safeguarding assets

 


Suggested Answer: A

The basic purpose of Information System control in an organization is to ensure that the business objectives are achieved and undesired risk events are detected and corrected. Some of the IS control objectives are given below:
✑ Safeguarding assets
✑ Assuring integrity of sensitive and critical application system environments
✑ Assuring integrity of general operating system
✑ Ensuring effective and efficient operations
✑ Fulfilling user requirements, organizational policies and procedures, and applicable laws and regulations
✑ Changing management
✑ Developing business continuity and disaster recovery plans
✑ Developing incident response and handling plans
Hence the most important objective is to ensure that business objectives are achieved and undesired risk events are detected and corrected.
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: These are also the objectives of the information system control but are not the best answer.

 

Question 41

Which of the following BEST protects organizational data within a production cloud environment?

A. Right to audit

B. Data encryption

C. Data obfuscation

D. Continuous log monitoring

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 42

A risk practitioner notes that the number of unauthorized disclosures of confidential data has been increasing. Which of the following is MOST important to examine for determining the root cause?

A. The volume of data loss prevention (DLP) alerts

B. Completeness of data classification schema

C. Scope of security awareness training

D. Updated regulations related to data protection

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 43

During a risk assessment, a risk practitioner learns that an IT risk factor is adequately mitigated by compensating controls in an associated business process.
Which of the following would enable the MOST effective management of the residual risk?

A. Recommend additional IT controls to further reduce residual risk.

B. Request that ownership of the compensating controls is reassigned to IT.

C. Schedule periodic reviews of the compensating controls’ effectiveness.

D. Report the use of compensating controls to senior management.

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 44

When developing a response plan to address security incidents regarding sensitive data loss; it is MOST important to:

A. revalidate existing risk scenarios.

B. revalidate current key risk indicators (KRIs).

C. review the data classification policy.

D. revise risk management procedures.

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 45

An organization has detected unauthorized logins to its client database servers. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?

A. Potential increase in regulatory scrutiny

B. Potential theft of personal information

C. Potential legal risk

D. Potential system downtime

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 46

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk associated with sensitive data loss due to theft of an organization's removable media?

A. Data encryption

B. Asset management policy

C. Code of conduct policy

D. Data loss prevention (DLP) system

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 47

A risk practitioner is reviewing accountability assignments for data risk in the risk register. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern?

A. The risk owner is a staff member rather than a department manager.

B. The risk owner is in a business unit and does not report through the IT department.

C. The risk owner is not the control owner for associated data controls.

D. The risk owner is listed as the department responsible for decision making.

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 48

An organization is analyzing the risk of shadow IT usage. Which of the following is the MOST important input into the assessment?

A. Application-related expenses

B. Classification of the data

C. Business benefits of shadow IT

D. Volume of data

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 49

A third-party vendor has offered to perform user access provisioning and termination. Which of the following control accountabilities is BEST retained within the organization?

A. Reviewing access control lists

B. Performing user access recertification

C. Authorizing user access requests

D. Terminating inactive user access

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 50

Which of the following provides the MOST up-to-date information about the effectiveness of an organization's overall IT control environment?

A. Periodic penetration testing.

B. Key performance indicators (KPIs).

C. Internal audit findings.

D. Risk heat maps.

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

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