What are the requirement to configure DHCP binding? (Choose two.)

A. DHCP pool

B. ip address

C. Hardware address

D. other option

Which two statements correctly describe RADIUS? (Choose two.)

A. It encrypts only the password.

B. It can authorize specific router commands.

C. It separates authentication, authorization, and accounting functions.

D. It uses TCP as its transport protocol.

E. It combines authentication and authorization.

A national retail chain needs to design an IP addressing scheme to support a nationwide network. The company needs a minimum of 300 sub-networks and a maximum of 50 host addresses per subnet. Working with only one Class B address, which of the following subnet masks will support an appropriate addressing scheme? (Choose two.)

A. 255.255.255.0

B. 255.255.255.128

C. 255.255.252.0

D. 255.255.255.224

E. 255.255.255.192

F. 255.255.248.0

What are three approaches that are used when migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme. (Choose three.)

A. enable dual-stack routing.

B. configure IPv6 directly.

C. configure IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands.

D. use proxying and translation to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets.

E. statically map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses.

F. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses.

Refer to the exhibit.
Hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other but are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs.
What is needed to allow communication between VLANs?
 

A. a router with an IP address on the physical interface that is connected to the switch.

B. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch.

C. a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches.

D. a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches.

Refer to the exhibit.
Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the most likely reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
 

A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.

B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.

C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.

D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Which value indicates the distance from the NTP authoritative time source?

A. stratum

B. layer

C. location

D. priority

Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three)

A. one-to-many communication model

B. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device

C. any-to-many communication model

D. a unique IFV6 address for each device in the group

E. the same address for multiple devices in the group

F. one-to-nearest communication model

Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)

A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.

B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.

C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.

D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.

E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.

F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

A network administrator wants to add a line to an access list that will block only Telnet access by the hosts on subnet 192.168.1.128/28 to the server at
192.168.1.5. What command should be issued to accomplish this task?

A. access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23 access-list 101 permit ip any any

B. access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.240 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 23 access-list 101 permit ip any any

C. access-list 1 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.255 192.168.1.5 0.0.0.0 eq 21 access-list 1 permit ip any any

D. access-list 1 deny tcp 192.168.1.128 0.0.0.15 host 192.168.1.5 eq 23 access-list 1 permit ip any any

Which type of device can be replaced by the use of subinterfaces for VLAN routing?

A. Layer 2 bridge

B. Layer 2 switch

C. Layer 3 switch

D. router

What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?

A. NIC

B. BIA

C. oui

D. vai

Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?

A. unicast

B. multicast

C. anycast

D. broadcast

Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)

A. provides common view of entire topology

B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors

C. calculates shortest path

D. utilizes event-triggered updates

E. utilizes frequent periodic updates

How many subnets can be gained by subnetting 172.17.32.0/23 into a /27 mask, and how many usable host addresses will there be per subnet?

A. 8 subnets, 31 hosts

B. 8 subnets, 32 hosts

C. 16 subnets, 30 hosts

D. 16 subnets, 32 hosts

E. A Class B address cant be subnetted into the fourth octet.

How many bits represent network id in a IPv6 address?

A. 32

B. 48

C. 64

D. 128

Refer to the exhibit.
 
What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?

A. The maximum number of bytes that can traverse this interface per second is 1500.

B. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

C. The maximum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

D. The minimum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

E. The maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

F. The maximum frame size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)

A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.

B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.

C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.

D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.

E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.

What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?

A. 90

B. 100

C. 110

D. 120

Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of vlan 1?

A. the switch with the lowest MAC address

B. the switch with the highest MAC address

C. the switch with the highest IP address

D. the switch with the lowest IP address

Refer to the graphic.
 
Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?

A. the MAC address of the server network interface

B. the MAC address of host A

C. the MAC address of router interface e1

D. the MAC address of router interface e0

When troubleshooting Ethernet connectivity issues, how can you verify that an IP address is known to a router?

A. Check whether the IP address is in the routing table

B. Check whether an ACL is blocking the IP address

C. Check whether the IP address is in the CAM table

D. Check whether the IP address is in the ARP table

What is the maximum number of switches that StackWise can support in one stack?

A. 6

B. 8

C. 9

D. 10

Refer to the exhibit. How should the FastEthernet0/1 port on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be configured to allow connectivity between all devices?
 

A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable. B. C. D.

Which two statements about the ip default-network command are true? (Choose two.)

A. It specifies the network that is used when the device finds an exact match in the routing table.

B. It requires IP routing to be disabled on the device.

C. It specifies the network that is used when the device cannot find an exact match in the routing table.

D. It requires IP routing to be enabled on the device.

E. It can be configured on a Layer 2 switch to specify the next hop.

Which statements is true about Router on Stick?

A. When a router have multiple subnets on a single physical link.

B. When a router have single subnet on multiple physical links.

C. When a router have multiple interface on single physical links.

D. When a router have single interface on multiple physical links

Which NAT function can map multiple inside addresses to a single outside address?

A. PAT

B. SFTP

C. RARP

D. ARP

E. TFTP

Refer to the exhibit.
 
What statement is true of the configuration for this network?

A. The configuration that is shown provides inadequate outside address space for translation of the number of inside addresses that are supported.

B. Because of the addressing on interface FastEthernet0/1, the Serial0/0 interface address will not support the NAT configuration as shown.

C. The number 1 referred to in the ip nat inside source command references access-list number 1.

D. ExternalRouter must be configured with static routes to networks 172.16.1.0/24 and 172.16.2.0/24.

Refer to exhibit.
 
A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the cause of this failure?

A. A Level 5 password is not set.

B. An ACL is blocking Telnet access.

C. The vty password is missing.

D. The console password is missing.

The network administrator of the Oregon router adds the following command to the router configuration: ip route 192.168.12.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.12.1. What are the results of adding this command? (Choose two.)

A. The command establishes a static route.

B. The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.12.0.

C. Traffic for network 192.168.12.0 is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.

D. Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.

E. This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.

F. Traffic for network 172.16.12.0 is forwarded to the 192.168.12.0 network.

Refer to the exhibit. What type of connection would be supported by the cable diagram shown?
 

A. PC to router

B. PC to switch

C. server to router

D. router to router

What command visualizes the general NetFlow data on the command line?

A. show ip flow export

B. show ip flow top-talkers

C. show ip cache flow

D. show mls sampling

E. show mls netflow ip

Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two.)

A. 802.1d

B. VTP

C. 802.1q

D. SAP

E. STP

Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.)

A. It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA.

B. It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance.

C. By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID.

D. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.

Which statement is correct regarding the operation of DHCP?

A. A DHCP client uses a ping to detect address conflicts.

B. A DHCP server uses a gratuitous ARP to detect DHCP clients.

C. A DHCP client uses a gratuitous ARP to detect a DHCP server.

D. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and an administrator must resolve the conflict.

E. If an address conflict is detected, the address removed from the pool for an amount of time configurable by the administrator.

F. If an address conflict is detected, the address is removed from the pool and will not be reused until server is rebooted.

Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
Router(config)#router ospf 1 -

A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.

B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.

C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes

D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.

E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.

Which task must you perform to enable an IOS device to use DNS services?

A. Configure a relay agent information reforwarding policy.

B. Configure manual bindings.

C. Configure a name server.

D. Configure the relay agent information option.

You are a junior network engineer for a financial company, and the main office network is experiencing network issues.  Troubleshoot the network issues.
Router R1 connects the main office to the Internet, and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers.
NAT is enabled on router R1.
The routing protocol that is enabled between routers R1, R2 and R3 is RIPv2.
R1 sends the default route into RIPv2 for the internal routers to forward Internet traffic to R1.
You have console access on R1, R2 and R3 devices. Use only show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
 
Users complain that they are unable to reach Internet sites. You are troubleshooting Internet connectivity problem at main office. Which statement correctly identifies the problem on Router R1?

A. Interesting traffic for NAT ACL is incorrectly configured.

B. NAT configurations on the interfaces are incorrectly configured.

C. NAT translation statement incorrectly configured.

D. Only static NAT transaction configured for the server, missing Dynamic NAT or Dynamic NAT overloading for Internet networks.

In which byte of an IP packet can traffic be marked?

A. the ToS byte

B. the QoS byte

C. the CoS byte

D. the DSCP byte

Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with the least amount of wasted addresses?
 

A. 255.255.255.0

B. 255.255.254.0

C. 255.255.252.0

D. 255.255.248.0

Refer to the exhibit. After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?
 
A.
 
B.
 
C.
 
D.
 
E.
 
F.
 

Refer to the exhibit.
 
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of the all Ethernet links is 100Mb/s.
A static route will be established on the Manchester router to the direct traffic toward the internet over the most direct path available.
What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a router toward the internet for traffic that originates from workstation on the Manchester LAN?

A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2

B. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1

C. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1

D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1

E. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2

F. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?
 

A. This design will function as intended.

B. Spanning-tree will need to be used.

C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.

D. The connection between switches should be a trunk.

E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

Which two command sequences must you configure on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two.)

A. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode on

B. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode active

C. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 channel-group 10 mode auto

D. interface port-channel 10 switchport switchport mode trunk

E. interface port-channel 10 no switchport ip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

Which command must you enter to enable OSPFV2 in an IPV4 network?

A. ip ospf hello-interval seconds

B. router ospfv2 process-id

C. router ospf value

D. router ospf process-id

A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel, bundling four interfaces into channel group 1. On what interface is the IP address configured?

A. the port-channel 1 interface

B. the highest number member interface

C. all member interfaces

D. the lowest number member interface

Which configuration can you apply to enable encapsulation on a subinterface?
A.
 
B.
 
C.
 
D.
 

Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)

A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.

B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.

C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.

D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.

E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.

Refer to the exhibit.
 
C-router is to be used as a "router-on-a-stick" to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational.
The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What can be said about this configuration?

A. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router eigrp 123 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0

B. No further routing configuration is required.

C. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router ospf 1 C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0

D. These commands need to be added to the configuration: C-router(config)# router rip C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0

Refer to the exhibit.
 
 
The network administrator cannot connect to Switch 1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router.
Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on
Switch1 to correct this problem?
A.
 
B.
 
C.
 
D.
 
E.