JN0-351 Exam Prep Free – 50 Practice Questions to Get You Ready for Exam Day
Getting ready for the JN0-351 certification? Our JN0-351 Exam Prep Free resource includes 50 exam-style questions designed to help you practice effectively and feel confident on test day
Effective JN0-351 exam prep free is the key to success. With our free practice questions, you can:
- Get familiar with exam format and question style
- Identify which topics you’ve mastered—and which need more review
- Boost your confidence and reduce exam anxiety
Below, you will find 50 realistic JN0-351 Exam Prep Free questions that cover key exam topics. These questions are designed to reflect the structure and challenge level of the actual exam, making them perfect for your study routine.
Which three protocols support BFD? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP
B. BGP
C. OSPF
D. LACP
E. FTP
You are attempting to configure the initial two aggregated Ethernet interfaces on a router but there are no aggregated Ethernet interfaces available. In this scenario, which configuration will enable these interfaces on this router?
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the default MAC age-out timer on an EX Series switch?
A. 30 minutes
B. 30 seconds
C. 300 minutes
D. 300 seconds
You have DHCP snooping enabled but no entries are automatically created in the snooping database for an interface on your EX Series switch. What are two reasons for the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The device that is connected to the interface has performed a DHCPRELEASE.
B. MAC limiting is enabled on the interface.
C. The device that is connected to the interface has a static IP address.
D. Dynamic ARP inspection is enabled on the interface.
You are asked to connect an IP phone and a user computer using the same interface on an EX Series switch. The traffic from the computer does not use a VLAN tag, whereas the traffic from the IP phone uses a VLAN tag. Which feature enables the interface to receive both types of traffic?
A. native VLAN
B. DHCP snooping
C. MAC limiting
D. voice VLAN
You are a network operator who wants to add a second ISP connection and remove the default route to the existing ISP. You decide to deploy the BGP protocol in the network. What two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. IBGP updates the next-hop attribute to ensure reachability within an AS.
B. IBGP peers advertise routes received from EBGP peers to other IBGP peers.
C. IBGP peers advertise routes received from IBGP peers to other IBGP peers.
D. EBGP peers advertise routes received from IBGP peers to other EBGP peers.
You want to enable redundancy for the EBGP peering between the two routers shown in the exhibit. Which three actions will you perform in this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. Configure BGP multihop.
B. Configure loopback interface peering.
C. Configure routes for the peer loopback interface IP addresses.
D. Configure an MD5 peer authentication.
E. Configure a cluster ID.
You have configured the four EX Series switches with RSTP, as shown in the exhibit. You discover that whenever a link between switches goes up or down, the switches take longer than expected for RSTP to converge, using the default settings. In this scenario, which action would solve the delay in RSTP convergence?
A. The hello-time must be increased.
B. The force-version must be removed.
C. The bridge priority for EX-4 must be set at 4000.
D. The max-age must be increased to 20.
You are troubleshooting an issue where traffic to 192.168.10.0/24 is being sent to R1 instead of your desired path through R2. Referring to the exhibit, what is the reason for the problem?
A. R2’s route is not the best path due to loop prevention.
B. R2’s route is not the best path due to a lower origin code.
C. R1’s route is the best path due to a higher local preference.
D. R1’s route is the best path due to the shorter AS path.
What is the maximum allowable MTU size for a default GRE tunnel without IPv4 traffic fragmentation?
A. 1496 bytes
B. 1480 bytes
C. 1500 bytes
D. 1476 bytes
In RSTP, which three port roles are associated with the discarding state? (Choose three.)
A. root
B. backup
C. alternate
D. disabled
E. designated
Referring to the exhibit, which two configuration changes must you apply for packets to reach from R1 to R3 using IS-IS? (Choose two.)
A. On R1, enable Level 1 on the ge-0/0/1 interface.
B. On R3 disable Level 2 on the ge-0/0/4 interface.
C. On R1, disable Level 2 on the ge-0/0/1 interface.
D. On R3 enable Level 1 on the ge-0/0/4 interface.
What are two reasons for creating multiple areas in OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. to reduce the convergence time
B. to increase the number of adjacencies in the backbone
C. to increase the size of the LSDB
D. to reduce LSA flooding across the network
The ISP1.inet.0 route table has currently no routes in it. What will happen when you commit the configuration shown on the exhibit?
A. The inet.0 route table will be completely overwritten by the ISP1.inet.0 route table.
B. The inet.0 route table will be imported into the ISP1.inet.0 route table.
C. The ISP1.inet.0 route table will be completely overwritten by the inet.0 route table.
D. The ISP1.inet.0 route table will be imported into the inet.0 route table.
You want to verify prefix information being sent from 10.36.1.4. Which two statements are correct about the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. The routes displayed have traversed one or more autonomous systems.
B. The output shows routes that were received prior to the application of any BGP import policies.
C. The output shows routes that are active and rejected by an import policy.
D. The routes displayed are being learned from an IBGP peer.
You are concerned about spoofed MAC addresses on your LAN. Which two Layer 2 security features should you enable to minimize this concern? (Choose two.)
A. dynamic ARP inspection
B. IP source guard
C. DHCP snooping
D. static ARP
Which two statements are true about the default VLAN on Juniper switches? (Choose two.)
A. The default VLAN is set to a VLAN ID of 1 by default
B. The default VLAN ID is not assigned to any interface.
C. The default VLAN ID is not visible.
D. The default VLAN ID can be changed.
Which statement is correct about graceful Routing Engine switchover (GRES)?
A. The PFE restarts and the kernel and interface information is lost.
B. GRES has a helper mode and are starting mode.
C. When combined with NSR, routing is preserved and the new master RE does not restart rpd.
D. With no other high availability features enabled, routing is preserved and the new master RE does not restart rpd.
Your ISP is announcing a default route to both R1 and R2. You want your network routers to forward all Internet traffic through the R1 device. Which BGP attribute would you use?
A. MED
B. next-hop
C. local preference
D. origin
You implemented the MAC address limit feature with the shutdown action on all interfaces on your switch. In this scenario, which statement is correct when a violation occurs?
A. By default, you must manually clear the violation for the interface to send and receive traffic again.
B. By default, the violation will automatically be cleared after 300 seconds and the interface will resume sending and receiving traffic for all learned devices.
C. By default, devices that are learned before the violation occurs are still allowed to send and receive traffic through the specific interface.
D. By default, the interface will continue to send and receive traffic for all connected devices after a violation has occurred.
What is a purpose of using a spanning tree protocol?
A. to look up MAC addresses
B. to eliminate broadcast storms
C. to route IP packets
D. to tunnel Ethernet frames
Which statement about aggregate routes is correct?
A. Aggregate routes can only be used for static routing but not for dynamic routing protocols.
B. Aggregate routes are automatically generated for all of the subnets in a routing table.
C. Aggregate routes are always preferred over more specific routes, even when the specific routes have a better path.
D. Aggregate routes are used for advertising summarized network prefixes.
Which statement is correct about the IS-IS ISO NET address?
A. An ISO NET address defined with a system ID of 0000.0000.0000 must be selected as the DIS.
B. An ISO NET address must be unique for each device in the network.
C. You can only define a single ISO NET address per device.
D. The Area ID must match on all devices within a L2 area.
Which statement is correct about the storm control feature?
A. The storm control feature is enabled in the factory-default configuration on EX Series switches.
B. The storm control feature requires a special license on EX Series switches.
C. The storm control feature is not supported on aggregate Ethernet interfaces.
D. The storm control configuration only applies to traffic being sent between the forwarding and control plane.
What are two characteristics of RSTP alternate ports? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP alternate ports block traffic while receiving superior BPDUs from a neighboring switch.
B. RSTP alternate ports provide an alternate lower cost path to the root bridge.
C. RSTP alternate ports provide an alternate higher cost path to the root bridge.
D. RSTP alternate ports are active ports used to forward frames toward the root bridge.
You are using OSPF to advertise the subnets that are used by the Denver and Dallas offices. The routers that are directly connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets are not advertising the connected subnets. Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Create static routes on the switches using the local vMX router’s loopback interface for the next hop.
B. Configure and apply a routing policy that redistributes the Dallas and Denver subnets using Type 5 LSAs.
C. Configure and apply a routing policy that redistributes the connected Dallas and Denver subnets.
D. Enable the passive option on the OSPF interfaces that are connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets.
What does the * indicate in the output shown in the exhibit?
A. The switch ports have a router attached.
B. The interface is down.
C. The interface is active.
D. All interfaces have elected a root bridge.
An update to your organization's network security requirements document requires management traffic to be isolated in a non-default routing-instance. You want to implement this requirement on your Junos-based devices. Which two commands enable this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. set routing-instances mgmt_junos interface ge-0/0/0
B. set routing-instances mgmt_junos interface em1
C. set system management-instance
D. set routing-instances mgmt_junos
After receiving a BGP route, which two conditions are verified by the receiving router to ensure that the received route is valid? (Choose two.)
A. The AS-path length is greater than 0.
B. The loops do not exist.
C. The next hop is reachable.
D. The local preference is greater than 0.
Which statement about aggregate routes is correct?
A. Aggregate routes can only be used for static routing but not for dynamic routing protocols.
B. Aggregate routes are automatically generated for all of the subnets in a routing table.
C. Aggregate routes are always preferred over more specific routes, even when the specific routes have a better path.
D. Aggregate routes are used for advertising summarized network prefixes.
You have two OSPF routers forming an adjacency. R1 has a priority of 32 and a router ID of 192.168.1.2. R2 has a priority of 64 and a router ID of 192.168.1.1. The routers were started at the same time and all other OSPF settings are the default settings. Which statement is correct in this scenario?
A. At least three routers are required for a DR/BDR election.
B. Router IDs must match for an adjacency to form.
C. R2 will be the BDR.
D. R1 will be the BDR.
Referring to the output shown in the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. The state is normal for a DR neighbor.
B. The state is normal for a DRother neighbor.
C. An MTU mismatch exists between the OSPF neighbors.
D. An area ID mismatch exists between the OSPF neighbors.
You are a network operator troubleshooting BGP connectivity. Which two statements are correct about the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Peer 10.32.1.2 is configured for AS 63645.
B. The BGP session is not established.
C. The R1 is configured for AS 65400.
D. The routers are exchanging IPv4 routes.
You are configuring an IS-IS IGP network and do not see the IS-IS adjacencies established. In this scenario, what are two reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. MTU is not at least 1492 bytes.
B. IP subnets are not a /30 address.
C. The Level 2 routers have mismatched areas.
D. The Io0 interface is not included as an IS-IS interface.
Which two statements correctly describe RSTP port roles? (Choose two.)
A. The designated port forwards data to the downstream network segment or device.
B. The backup port is used as a backup for the root port.
C. The alternate port is a standby port for an edge port.
D. The root port is responsible for forwarding data to the root bridge.
Which two types of tunnels are able to be created on all Junos devices? (Choose two.)
A. STP
B. GRE
C. IP-IP
D. IPsec
Two routers share the same highest priority and start time. In this situation, what is evaluated next when determining the designated router?
A. The router with the lowest router ID become the DR.
B. The router with the highest router ID becomes the DR.
C. The routers perform another DR election.
D. The router with the highest MAC address become the DR.
Which two mechanisms are part of building and maintaining a Layer 2 bridge table? (Choose two.)
A. blocking
B. flooding
C. learning
D. listening
Referring to the exhibit, which two configuration changes must you apply for packets to reach from R1 to R3 using IS-IS? (Choose two.)
A. On R1, enable Level 1 on the ge-0/0/1 interface.
B. On R3 disable Level 2 on the ge-0/0/4 interface.
C. On R1, disable Level 2 on the ge-0/0/1 interface.
D. On R3 enable Level 1 on the ge-0/0/4 interface.
Which command displays the output shown in the exhibit?
A. show route forwarding-table
B. show ethernet-switching table
C. show ethernet-switching table extensive
D. show route forwarding-table family ethernet-switching
You are asked to create a new firewall filter to evaluate Layer 3 traffic that is being sent between VLANs. In this scenario, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. You should create a family Ethernet-switching firewall filter with the appropriate match criteria and actions.
B. You should apply the firewall filter to the appropriate VLAN.
C. You should create a family inet firewall filter with the appropriate match criteria and actions.
D. You should apply the firewall filter to the appropriate IRB interface.
What are two reasons for creating multiple areas in OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. to reduce the convergence time
B. to increase the number of adjacencies in the backbone
C. to increase the size of the LSDB
D. to reduce LSA flooding across the network
Your BGP neighbors, one in the USA and one in France, are not establishing a connection with each other. Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. The BFD liveness is set too low.
B. The BFD liveness must be configured on the BGP neighbor.
C. The BFD liveness must be configured on the BGP group.
D. The BFD liveness is set too high.
You need to configure a LAG between your switches. In this scenario, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Duplex and speed settings are not required to match on both participating devices.
B. Duplex and speed settings are required to match on both participating devices.
C. Member links are not required to be contiguous ports.
D. Member links are required to be contiguous ports.
Which two statements about redundant trunk groups on EX Series switches are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Redundant trunk groups load-balance traffic across two designated uplink interfaces.
B. If the active link fails, then the secondary link automatically takes over.
C. Layer 2 control traffic is permitted on the secondary link.
D. Redundant trunk groups must be connected to the same aggregation switch.
You are troubleshooting an issue where traffic to 192.168.10.0/24 is being sent to R1 instead of your desired path through R2. Referring to the exhibit, what is the reason for the problem?
A. R2’s route is not the best path due to loop prevention.
B. R2’s route is not the best path due to a lower origin code.
C. R1’s route is the best path due to a higher local preference.
D. R1’s route is the best path due to the shorter AS path.
What are two characteristics of RSTP alternate ports? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP alternate ports block traffic while receiving superior BPDUs from a neighboring switch.
B. RSTP alternate ports provide an alternate lower cost path to the root bridge.
C. RSTP alternate ports provide an alternate higher cost path to the root bridge.
D. RSTP alternate ports are active ports used to forward frames toward the root bridge.
In RSTP, which three port roles are associated with the discarding state? (Choose three.)
A. root
B. backup
C. alternate
D. disabled
E. designated
You have configured a GRE tunnel. To reduce the risk of dropping traffic, you have configured a keepalive OAM probe to monitor the state of the tunnel; however, traffic drops are still occurring. Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem?
A. For GRE tunnels, the OAM protocol requires that the BFD protocols also be used.
B. The “event link-adjacency-loss” option must be set
C. LLDP needs to be removed from the gr-1/1/10.1 interface.
D. The hold time value must be two times the keepalive-time value
What is the management IP address of the device shown in the exhibit?
A. 10.210.20.233
B. 172.23.12.100
C. 128.0.0.1
D. 172.23.11.10
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