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CRISC Exam Prep Free

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  • CRISC Exam Prep Free – 50 Practice Questions to Get You Ready for Exam Day
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CRISC Exam Prep Free – 50 Practice Questions to Get You Ready for Exam Day

Getting ready for the CRISC certification? Our CRISC Exam Prep Free resource includes 50 exam-style questions designed to help you practice effectively and feel confident on test day

Effective CRISC exam prep free is the key to success. With our free practice questions, you can:

  • Get familiar with exam format and question style
  • Identify which topics you’ve mastered—and which need more review
  • Boost your confidence and reduce exam anxiety

Below, you will find 50 realistic CRISC Exam Prep Free questions that cover key exam topics. These questions are designed to reflect the structure and challenge level of the actual exam, making them perfect for your study routine.

Question 1

An organization wants to leverage artificial intelligence (AI) to help identify and analyze root causes of data breaches involving multiple systems. Which of the following is BEST suited for this purpose?

A. Intrusion detection and prevention systems

B. Security information and event management (SIEM) system

C. Application event logging system

D. Database activity monitoring system

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 2

Thomas is a key stakeholder in your project. Thomas has requested several changes to the project scope for the project you are managing.
Upon review of the proposed changes, you have discovered that these new requirements are laden with risks and you recommend to the change control board that the changes be excluded from the project scope. The change control board agrees with you. What component of the change control system communicates the approval or denial of a proposed change request?

A. Configuration management system

B. Integrated change control

C. Change log

D. Scope change control system

 


Suggested Answer: B

Integrated change control is responsible for facilitating, documenting, and dispersing information on a proposed change to the project scope.
Integrated change control is a way to manage the changes incurred during a project. It is a method that manages reviewing the suggestions for changes and utilizing the tools and techniques to evaluate whether the change should be approved or rejected. Integrated change control is a primary component of the project’s change control system that examines the affect of a proposed change on the entire project.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The configuration management system controls and documents changes to the project’s product
C: The change log documents approved changes in the project scope.
D: The scope change control system controls changes that are permitted to the project scope.

 

Question 3

A core data center went offline abruptly for several hours, affecting many transactions across multiple locations. Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information to determine mitigating controls?

A. Root cause analysis

B. Risk assessment

C. Business impact analysis (BIA)

D. Forensic analysis

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 4

Which of the following would be the BEST input when evaluating the risk associated with a proposed adoption of robotic process automation (RPA) of a business service?

A. Control objectives

B. Cost-benefit analysis results

C. Code review results

D. Business continuity plan (BCP)

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 5

What should a risk practitioner do NEXT if an ineffective key control is identified on a critical system?

A. Revalidate the risk assessment.

B. Escalate to senior management.

C. Propose acceptance of the risk.

D. Conduct a gap analysis.

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 6

Who should be responsible for evaluating the residual risk after a compensating control has been applied?

A. Risk practitioner

B. Compliance manager

C. Risk owner

D. Control owner

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 7

Which of the following methods involves the use of predictive or diagnostic analytical tool for exposing risk factors?

A. Scenario analysis

B. Sensitivity analysis

C. Fault tree analysis

D. Cause and effect analysis

 


Suggested Answer: D

Cause-and-effect analysis involves the use of predictive or diagnostic analytical tool for exploring the root causes or factors that contribute to positive or negative effects or outcomes. These tools also help in identifying potential risk.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This analysis is not a method for exposing risk factors. It is used for analyzing scenarios.
B: Sensitivity analysis is the quantitative risk analysis technique that:
✑ Assist in determination of risk factors that have the most potential impact
✑ Examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each element affects the object under consideration when all other uncertain elements are held at their baseline values
C: Fault tree analysis (FIA) is a technique that provides a systematic description of the combination of possible occurrences in a system, which can result in an undesirable outcome. It combines hardware failures and human failures.

 

Question 8

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key performance indicator (KPI) to measure change management performance?

A. Percentage of rejected change requests

B. Percentage of changes implemented successfully

C. Number of after-hours emergency changes

D. Number of change control requests

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 9

Which of the following is a detective control?

A. Limit check

B. Access control software

C. Periodic access review

D. Rerun procedures

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 10

What should be the PRIMARY consideration related to data privacy protection when there are plans for a business initiative to make use of personal information?

A. Limit access to the personal data.

B. Do not collect or retain data that is not needed.

C. Redact data where possible.

D. Ensure all data is encrypted at rest and during transit.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 11

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for a risk practitioner to identify stakeholders for each IT risk scenario?

A. To ensure enterprise-wide risk management

B. To identity key risk indicators (KRIs)

C. To enable a comprehensive view of risk

D. To establish control ownership

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 12

What is the PRIMARY reason to periodically review key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A. Identify trends

B. Optimize resources needed for controls

C. Ensure compliance

D. Promote a risk-aware culture

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 13

You work as a Project Manager for www.company.com Inc. You have to measure the probability, impact, and risk exposure. Then, you have to measure how the selected risk response can affect the probability and impact of the selected risk event. Which of the following tools will help you to accomplish the task?

A. Project network diagrams

B. Delphi technique

C. Decision tree analysis

D. Cause-and-effect diagrams

 


Suggested Answer: C

Decision tree analysis is a risk analysis tool that can help the project manager in determining the best risk response. The tool can be used to measure probability, impact, and risk exposure and how the selected risk response can affect the probability and/or impact of the selected risk event. It helps to form a balanced image of the risks and opportunities connected with each possible course of action. This makes them mostly useful for choosing between different strategies, projects, or investment opportunities particularly when the resources are limited. A decision tree is a decision support tool that uses a tree-like graph or model of decisions and their possible consequences, including chance event outcomes, resource costs, and utility.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Project network diagrams help the project manager and stakeholders visualize the flow of the project work, but they are not used as a part of risk response planning.
B: The Delphi technique can be used in risk identification, but generally is not used in risk response planning. The Delphi technique uses rounds of anonymous surveys to identify risks.
D: Cause-and-effect diagrams are useful for identifying root causes and risk identification, but they are not the most effective ones for risk response planning.

 

Question 14

Which of the following is the BEST way to validate the results of a vulnerability assessment?

A. Perform a penetration test

B. Perform a root cause analysis

C. Conduct a threat analysis

D. Review security logs

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 15

An information security audit identified a risk resulting from the failure of an automated control. Who is responsible for ensuring the risk register is updated accordingly?

A. The control owner

B. The audit manager

C. The risk practitioner

D. The risk owner

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 16

What are the requirements of effectively communicating risk analysis results to the relevant stakeholders? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution.
(Choose three.)

A. The results should be reported in terms and formats that are useful to support business decisions

B. Communicate only the negative risk impacts of events in order to drive response decisions

C. Communicate the risk-return context clearly

D. Provide decision makers with an understanding of worst-case and most probable scenarios

 


Suggested Answer: ACD

The result of risk analysis process is being communicated to relevant stakeholders. The steps that are involved in communication are:
✑ The results should be reported in terms and formats that are useful to support business decisions.
✑ Coordinate additional risk analysis activity as required by decision makers, like report rejection and scope adjustment.
✑ Communicate the risk-return context clearly, which include probabilities of loss and/or gain, ranges, and confidence levels (if possible) that enable management to balance risk-return.
✑ Identify the negative impacts of events that drive response decisions as well as positive impacts of events that represent opportunities which should channel back into the strategy and objective setting process.
✑ Provide decision makers with an understanding of worst-case and most probable scenarios, due diligence exposures and significant reputation, legal or regulatory considerations.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Both the negative and positive risk impacts are being communicated to relevant stakeholders. Identify the negative impacts of events that drive response decisions as well as positive impacts of events that represent opportunities which should channel back into the strategy and objective setting process.

 

Question 17

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the likelihood of an individual performing a potentially harmful action as the result of unnecessary entitlement?

A. Least privilege

B. Application monitoring

C. Separation of duty

D. Nonrepudiation

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 18

A recently purchased IT application does not meet project requirements. Of the following, who is accountable for the potential impact?

A. Business analyst

B. IT project team

C. IT project management office

D. Project sponsor

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 19

You are the project manager of the NGQQ Project for your company. To help you communicate project status to your stakeholders, you are going to create a stakeholder register. All of the following information should be included in the stakeholder register except for which one?

A. Stakeholder management strategy

B. Assessment information of the stakeholders’ major requirements, expectations, and potential influence

C. Identification information for each stakeholder

D. Stakeholder classification of their role in the project

 


Suggested Answer: A

The stakeholder management strategy is generally not included in the stakeholder registry because it may contain sensitive information that should not be shared with project team members or certain other individuals that could see the stakeholder register. The stakeholder register is a project management document that contains a list of the stakeholders associated with the project. It assesses how they are involved in the project and identifies what role they play in the organization.
The information in this document can be very perceptive and is meant for limited exchange only. It also contains relevant information about the stakeholders, such as their requirements, expectations, and influence on the project.
Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: Stakeholder identification, Assessment information, and Stakeholder classification should be included in the stakeholder register.

 

Question 20

The best way to test the operational effectiveness of a data backup procedure is to:

A. inspect a selection of audit trails and backup logs

B. conduct an audit of files stored offsite

C. demonstrate a successful recovery from backup files

D. interview employees to compare actual with expected procedures

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 21

Which of the following is the MOST critical factor to consider when determining an organization's risk appetite?

A. Budget for implementing security

B. Business maturity

C. Fiscal management practices

D. Management culture

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 22

Which of the following would be the BEST way to help ensure the effectiveness of a data loss prevention (DLP) control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data?

A. Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers

B. Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers

C. Testing the transmission of credit card numbers

D. Testing the DLP rule change control process

 


Suggested Answer: A

Reference:
https://www.esecurityplanet.com/network-security/data-loss-prevention-dlp.html

<img src=”https://www.examtopics.com/assets/media/exam-media/04284/0029700001.png” alt=”Reference Image” />

 

Question 23

An organization's risk profile indicates that residual risk levels have fallen significantly below management's risk appetite. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A. Add more risk scenarios to the risk register.

B. Decrease monitoring of residual risk levels.

C. Optimize controls.

D. Increase risk appetite.

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 24

Which of the following tasks should be completed prior to creating a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

A. Procuring a recovery site

B. Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

C. Assigning sensitivity levels to data

D. Identifying the recovery response team

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 25

Numerous media reports indicate a recently discovered technical vulnerability is being actively exploited. Which of the following would be the BEST response to this scenario?

A. Assess the vulnerability management process

B. Conduct a control self-assessment

C. Reassess the inherent risk of the target

D. Conduct a vulnerability assessment

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 26

An IT department has organized training sessions to improve user awareness of organizational information security policies. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to reflect effectiveness of the training?

A. Number of training sessions completed

B. Percentage of staff members who complete the training with a passing score

C. Percentage of attendees versus total staff

D. Percentage of staff members who attend the training with positive feedback

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 27

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of the risk identification process?

A. To expand organizational awareness and knowledge of identified risk scenarios

B. To reduce risk faced by the organization to an acceptable level

C. To ensure control objectives align with business objectives

D. To determine possible risk events that could jeopardize business objectives

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 28

When evaluating a number of potential controls for treating risk, it is MOST important to consider:

A. risk tolerance and control complexity

B. inherent risk and control effectiveness

C. risk appetite and control efficiency

D. residual risk and cost of control

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 29

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk associated with fraudulent use of an enterprise's brand on Internet sites?

A. Utilizing data loss prevention technology

B. Scanning the Internet to search for unauthorized usage

C. Monitoring the enterprise’s use of the Internet

D. Developing training and awareness campaigns

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 30

Which of the following information MUST be included in a business impact analysis (BIA) to facilitate risk assessments related to business continuity?

A. Critical business processes with their dependent resources

B. List of threats impacting critical business processes

C. Vulnerabilities identified within critical business processes

D. Business continuity and disaster recovery testing requirements

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 31

As part of an overall IT risk management plan, an IT risk register BEST helps management:

A. stay current with existing control status

B. align IT processes with business objectives

C. understand the organizational risk profile

D. communicate the enterprise risk management policy

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 32

Which of the following is MOST helpful in defining an early-warning threshold associated with insufficient network bandwidth?

A. Bandwidth used during business hours

B. Average bandwidth usage

C. Total bandwidth usage

D. Peak bandwidth usage

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 33

Who should be accountable for authorizing information system access to internal users?

A. Information security manager

B. Information owner

C. Information custodian

D. Information security officer

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 34

Beth is a project team member on the JHG Project. Beth has added extra features to the project and this has introduced new risks to the project work. The project manager of the JHG project elects to remove the features Beth has added. The process of removing the extra features to remove the risks is called what?

A. Detective control

B. Preventive control

C. Corrective control

D. Scope creep

 


Suggested Answer: B

This is an example of a preventive control as the problem is not yet occurred, only it is detected and are accounted for. By removing the scope items from the project work, the project manager is aiming to remove the added risk events, hence it is a preventive control. Preventive control is a type of internal control that is used to avoid undesirable events, errors and other occurrences, which an organization has determined could have a negative material effect on a process or end product.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Detective controls simply detect and report on the occurrence of problems. They identify specific symptoms to potential problems.
C: Corrective actions are steps to bring the future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan. These controls make effort to reduce the impact of a threat from problems discovered by detective controls. They first identify the cause of the problems, then take corrective measures and modify the systems to minimize the future occurrences of the problem. Hence an incident should take place before corrective controls come in action.
D: Scope creep refers to small undocumented changes to the project scope.

 

Question 35

Which of the following is a risk practitioner’s BEST course of action upon learning that regulatory authorities have concerns with an emerging technology the organization is considering?

A. Update risk responses.

B. Perform a threat assessment.

C. Redesign key risk indicators (KRIs).

D. Conduct a SWOT analysis.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 36

The BEST control to mitigate the risk associated with project scope creep is to:

A. consult with senior management on a regular basis

B. apply change management procedures

C. ensure extensive user involvement

D. deploy CASE tools in software development

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 37

Which of the following is MOST important to consider before determining a response to a vulnerability?

A. Monetary value of the asset

B. Lack of data to measure threat events

C. The cost to implement the risk response

D. The likelihood and impact of threat events

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 38

Several newly identified risk scenarios are being integrated into an organization's risk register. The MOST appropriate risk owner would be the individual who:

A. is accountable for loss if the risk materializes.

B. is in charge of information security.

C. is responsible for enterprise risk management (ERM).

D. can implement remediation action plans.

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 39

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes to the risk landscape?

A. Access reviews

B. Root cause analysis

C. Internal audit reports

D. Threat modeling

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 40

Which of the following practices MOST effectively safeguards the processing of personal data?

A. Personal data attributed to a specific data subject is tokenized.

B. Data protection impact assessments are performed on a regular basis.

C. Personal data certifications are performed to prevent excessive data collection.

D. Data retention guidelines are documented, established, and enforced.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 41

Which of the following will have the GREATEST influence when determining an organization’s risk appetite?

A. Risk culture

B. Risk management budget

C. Organizational structure

D. Industry benchmarks

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 42

You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Your project is using a new material to construct a large warehouse in your city. This new material is cheaper than traditional building materials, but it takes some time to learn how to use the material properly. You have communicated to the project stakeholders that you will be able to save costs by using the new material, but you will need a few extra weeks to complete training to use the materials. This risk response of learning how to use the new materials can also be known as what term?

A. Benchmarking

B. Cost-benefits analysis

C. Cost of conformance to quality

D. Team development

 


Suggested Answer: C

When the project team needs training to be able to complete the project work it is a cost of conformance to quality.
The cost of conformance to quality defines the cost of training, proper resources, and the costs the project must spend in order to ascertain the expected levels of quality the customer expects from the project. It is the capital used up throughout the project to avoid failures. It consists of two types of costs:
✑ Prevention costs: It is measured to build a quality product. It includes costs in training, document processing, equipment, and time to do it right.
✑ Appraisal costs: It is measured to assess the quality. It includes testing, destructive testing loss, and inspections.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Benchmarking compares any two items, such as materials, vendors, or resources.
B: Cost-benefit analysis is the study of the benefits in relation to the costs to receive the benefits of a decision, a project, or other investment.
D: Team development describes activities the project manager uses to create a more cohesive and responsive project team.

 

Question 43

You are the project manager of the HJK Project for your organization. You and the project team have created risk responses for many of the risk events in the project. Where should you document the proposed responses and the current status of all identified risks?

A. Stakeholder management strategy

B. Lessons learned documentation

C. Risk register

D. Risk management plan

 


Suggested Answer: C

Risks and the corresponding responses are documented in the risk register for the project. Risk register is a document that contains the results of the qualitative risk analysis, quantitative risk analysis, and risk response planning. Description, category, cause, probability of occurring, impact on objectives, proposed responses, owner, and the current status of all identified risks are put in the risk register.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The stakeholder management strategy defines how stakeholders and their threats, perceived threats, opinions, and influence over the project objectives will be addressed and managed.
B: The outcome of risk events and the corresponding risk responses may be documented in the project’s lessons learned documented, but the best answer is to document the risk responses as part of the risk register.
D: The risk management plan defines how risks will be identified and analyzed, the available responses, and the monitoring and controlling of the risk events. The actual risk responses are included in the risk register.

 

Question 44

Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the risk associated with malicious activities performed by database administrators (DBAs)?

A. Activity logging and monitoring

B. Awareness training and background checks

C. Two-factor authentication

D. Periodic access review

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 45

Which of the following indicators BEST demonstrates the effectiveness of a disaster recovery management (DRM) program?

A. Percentage of applications that have met disaster recovery test requirements

B. Number of audit findings related to disaster recovery

C. Number of disaster recovery tests completed on time

D. Percentage of applications with a defined recovery time objective (RTO)

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 46

Which of the following situations would create the GREATEST need to review the organization's risk appetite?

A. Increased adoption of personal devices for business use

B. Increasing business reliance on legacy infrastructure

C. Recent acquisition of a large business partner

D. New privacy laws affecting the organization’s processing of personal data

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 47

After entering a large number of low-risk scenarios into the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

A. reconfirm risk tolerance levels.

B. analyze changes to aggregate risk.

C. prepare a follow-up risk assessment.

D. recommend acceptance of the risk scenarios.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 48

An organization has experienced a cyber attack that exposed customer personally identifiable information (PII) and caused extended outages of network services. Which of the following stakeholders are MOST important to include in the cyber response team to determine response actions?

A. Cyber risk remediation plan owners

B. Enterprise risk management (ERM) team

C. Security control owners based on control failures

D. Risk owners based on risk impact

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 49

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST when an assessment reveals a control is not operating as intended?

A. Determine the root cause of the control issue.

B. Recommend updates to the control procedures.

C. Discuss the status with the control owner.

D. Recommend compensating controls.

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 50

Which of the following BEST promotes alignment between IT risk management and enterprise risk management?

A. Using the same risk ranking methodology across IT and the business

B. Obtaining senior management approval for IT policies and procedures

C. Including IT risk scenarios in the organization’s risk register

D. Expressing risk treatment initiatives in financial terms

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

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