312-50V9 Practice Exam Free – 50 Questions to Simulate the Real Exam
Are you getting ready for the 312-50V9 certification? Take your preparation to the next level with our 312-50V9 Practice Exam Free – a carefully designed set of 50 realistic exam-style questions to help you evaluate your knowledge and boost your confidence.
Using a 312-50V9 practice exam free is one of the best ways to:
- Experience the format and difficulty of the real exam
- Identify your strengths and focus on weak areas
- Improve your test-taking speed and accuracy
Below, you will find 50 realistic 312-50V9 practice exam free questions covering key exam topics. Each question reflects the structure and challenge of the actual exam.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Sniffers operate on Layer 2 of the OSI model
B. Sniffers operate on Layer 3 of the OSI model
C. Sniffers operate on both Layer 2 & Layer 3 of the OSI model.
D. Sniffers operate on the Layer 1 of the OSI model.
The network administrator at Spears Technology, Inc has configured the default gateway Cisco router's access-list as below: You are hired to conduct security testing on their network. You successfully brute-force the SNMP community string using a SNMP crack tool. The access-list configured at the router prevents you from establishing a successful connection. You want to retrieve the Cisco configuration from the router. How would you proceed?
A. Use the Cisco’s TFTP default password to connect and download the configuration file
B. Run a network sniffer and capture the returned traffic with the configuration file from the router
C. Run Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) tunneling protocol from your computer to the router masking your IP address
D. Send a customized SNMP set request with a spoofed source IP address in the range -192.168.1.0
Using Windows CMD, how would an attacker list all the shares to which the current user context has access?
A. NET USE
B. NET CONFIG
C. NET FILE
D. NET VIEW
Windows LAN Manager (LM) hashes are known to be weak. Which of the following are known weaknesses of LM? (Choose three.)
A. Converts passwords to uppercase.
B. Hashes are sent in clear text over the network.
C. Makes use of only 32-bit encryption.
D. Effective length is 7 characters.
Which statement best describes a server type under an N-tier architecture?
A. A group of servers at a specific layer
B. A single server with a specific role
C. A group of servers with a unique role
D. A single server at a specific layer
An attacker uses a communication channel within an operating system that is neither designed nor intended to transfer information. What is the name of the communications channel?
A. Classified
B. Overt
C. Encrypted
D. Covert
Which DNS resource record can indicate how long any "DNS poisoning" could last?
A. MX
B. SOA
C. NS
D. TIMEOUT
In the software security development life cycle process, threat modeling occurs in which phase?
A. Design
B. Requirements
C. Verification
D. Implementation
A penetration tester was hired to perform a penetration test for a bank. The tester began searching for IP ranges owned by the bank, performing lookups on the bank's DNS servers, reading news articles online about the bank, watching what times the bank employees come into work and leave from work, searching the bank's job postings (paying special attention to IT related jobs), and visiting the local dumpster for the bank's corporate office. What phase of the penetration test is the tester currently in?
A. Information reporting
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. Active information gathering
D. Passive information gathering
Fingerprinting VPN firewalls is possible with which of the following tools?
A. Angry IP
B. Nikto
C. Ike-scan
D. Arp-scan
During a wireless penetration test, a tester detects an access point using WPA2 encryption. Which of the following attacks should be used to obtain the key?
A. The tester must capture the WPA2 authentication handshake and then crack it.
B. The tester must use the tool inSSIDer to crack it using the ESSID of the network.
C. The tester cannot crack WPA2 because it is in full compliance with the IEEE 802.11i standard.
D. The tester must change the MAC address of the wireless network card and then use the AirTraf tool to obtain the key.
Which of the following represents the initial two commands that an IRC client sends to join an IRC network?
A. USER, NICK
B. LOGIN, NICK
C. USER, PASS
D. LOGIN, USER
What does a firewall check to prevent particular ports and applications from getting packets into an organization?
A. Transport layer port numbers and application layer headers
B. Presentation layer headers and the session layer port numbers
C. Network layer headers and the session layer port numbers
D. Application layer port numbers and the transport layer headers
A large company intends to use Blackberry for corporate mobile phones and a security analyst is assigned to evaluate the possible threats. The analyst will use the Blackjacking attack method to demonstrate how an attacker could circumvent perimeter defenses and gain access to the corporate network. What tool should the analyst use to perform a Blackjacking attack?
A. Paros Proxy
B. BBProxy
C. BBCrack
D. Blooover
The network administrator for a company is setting up a website with e-commerce capabilities. Packet sniffing is a concern because credit card information will be sent electronically over the Internet. Customers visiting the site will need to encrypt the data with HTTPS. Which type of certificate is used to encrypt and decrypt the data?
A. Asymmetric
B. Confidential
C. Symmetric
D. Non-confidential
One way to defeat a multi-level security solution is to leak data via
A. a bypass regulator.
B. steganography.
C. a covert channel.
D. asymmetric routing.
Smart cards use which protocol to transfer the certificate in a secure manner?
A. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)
B. Point to Point Protocol (PPP)
C. Point to Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)
D. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
Which type of scan measures a person's external features through a digital video camera?
A. Iris scan
B. Retinal scan
C. Facial recognition scan
D. Signature kinetics scan C
A person approaches a network administrator and wants advice on how to send encrypted email from home. The end user does not want to have to pay for any license fees or manage server services. Which of the following is the most secure encryption protocol that the network administrator should recommend?
A. IP Security (IPSEC)
B. Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (MIME)
C. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)
D. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol with Secure Socket Layer (HTTPS) C
Which type of intrusion detection system can monitor and alert on attacks, but cannot stop them?
A. Detective
B. Passive
C. Intuitive
D. Reactive B
You’ve just gained root access to a Centos 6 server after days of trying. What tool should you use to maintain access?
A. Disable Key Services
B. Create User Account
C. Download and Install Netcat
D. Disable IPTables
What is the main reason the use of a stored biometric is vulnerable to an attack?
A. The digital representation of the biometric might not be unique, even if the physical characteristic is unique.
B. Authentication using a stored biometric compares a copy to a copy instead of the original to a copy.
C. A stored biometric is no longer “something you are” and instead becomes “something you have”.
D. A stored biometric can be stolen and used by an attacker to impersonate the individual identified by the biometric.
How can telnet be used to fingerprint a web server?
A. telnet webserverAddress 80 HEAD / HTTP/1.0
B. telnet webserverAddress 80 PUT / HTTP/1.0
C. telnet webserverAddress 80 HEAD / HTTP/2.0
D. telnet webserverAddress 80 PUT / HTTP/2.0
Which of the following algorithms provides better protection against brute force attacks by using a 160-bit message digest?
A. MD5
B. SHA-1
C. RC4
D. MD4
Passive reconnaissance involves collecting information through which of the following?
A. Social engineering
B. Network traffic sniffing
C. Man in the middle attacks
D. Publicly accessible sources
Which of the following is a characteristic of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)?
A. Public-key cryptosystems are faster than symmetric-key cryptosystems.
B. Public-key cryptosystems distribute public-keys within digital signatures.
C. Public-key cryptosystems do not require a secure key distribution channel.
D. Public-key cryptosystems do not provide technical non-repudiation via digital signatures.
Which technical characteristic do Ethereal/Wireshark, TCPDump, and Snort have in common?
A. They are written in Java.
B. They send alerts to security monitors.
C. They use the same packet analysis engine.
D. They use the same packet capture utility.
Which of the following is a common Service Oriented Architecture (SOA) vulnerability?
A. Cross-site scripting
B. SQL injection
C. VPath injection
D. XML denial of service issues D
An attacker has captured a target file that is encrypted with public key cryptography. Which of the attacks below is likely to be used to crack the target file?
A. Timing attack
B. Replay attack
C. Memory trade-off attack
D. Chosen plain-text attack
Which statement is TRUE regarding network firewalls preventing Web Application attacks?
A. Network firewalls can prevent attacks because they can detect malicious HTTP traffic.
B. Network firewalls cannot prevent attacks because ports 80 and 443 must be opened.
C. Network firewalls can prevent attacks if they are properly configured.
D. Network firewalls cannot prevent attacks because they are too complex to configure.
A security policy will be more accepted by employees if it is consistent and has the support of
A. coworkers.
B. executive management.
C. the security officer.
D. a supervisor.
A hacker was able to sniff packets on a company's wireless network. The following information was discovered:Using the Exlcusive OR, what was the original message?
A. 00101000 11101110
B. 11010111 00010001
C. 00001101 10100100
D. 11110010 01011011
A company firewall engineer has configured a new DMZ to allow public systems to be located away from the internal network. The engineer has three security zones set:The engineer wants to configure remote desktop access from a fixed IP on the remote network to a remote desktop server in the DMZ. Which rule would best fit this requirement?
A. Permit 217.77.88.0/24 11.12.13.0/24 RDP 3389
B. Permit 217.77.88.12 11.12.13.50 RDP 3389
C. Permit 217.77.88.12 11.12.13.0/24 RDP 3389
D. Permit 217.77.88.0/24 11.12.13.50 RDP 3389
A company has hired a security administrator to maintain and administer Linux and Windows-based systems. Written in the nightly report file is the following: Firewall log files are at the expected value of 4 MB. The current time is 12am. Exactly two hours later the size has decreased considerably. Another hour goes by and the log files have shrunk in size again. Which of the following actions should the security administrator take?
A. Log the event as suspicious activity and report this behavior to the incident response team immediately.
B. Log the event as suspicious activity, call a manager, and report this as soon as possible.
C. Run an anti-virus scan because it is likely the system is infected by malware.
D. Log the event as suspicious activity, continue to investigate, and act according to the site’s security policy.
Which of the following describes the characteristics of a Boot Sector Virus?
A. Moves the MBR to another location on the RAM and copies itself to the original location of the MBR
B. Moves the MBR to another location on the hard disk and copies itself to the original location of the MBR
C. Modifies directory table entries so that directory entries point to the virus code instead of the actual program
D. Overwrites the original MBR and only executes the new virus code
You are the Systems Administrator for a large corporate organization. You need to monitor all network traffic on your local network for suspicious activities and receive notifications when an attack is occurring. Which tool would allow you to accomplish this goal?
A. Network-based IDS
B. Firewall
C. Proxy
D. Host-based IDS
An NMAP scan of a server shows port 25 is open. What risk could this pose?
A. Open printer sharing
B. Web portal data leak
C. Clear text authentication
D. Active mail relay
In the OSI model, where does PPTP encryption take place?
A. Transport layer
B. Application layer
C. Data link layer
D. Network layer
Which of the following is a strong post designed to stop a car?
A. Gate
B. Fence
C. Bollard
D. Reinforced rebar
What is the way to decide how a packet will move from an untrusted outside host to a protected inside that is behind a firewall, which permits the hacker to determine which ports are open and if the packets can pass through the packet-filtering of the firewall.
A. Firewalking
B. Session hijacking
C. Network sniffing
D. Man-in-the-middle attack
Which tool would be used to collect wireless packet data?
A. NetStumbler
B. John the Ripper
C. Nessus
D. Netcat
Which tool is used to automate SQL injections and exploit a database by forcing a given web application to connect to another database controlled by a hacker?
A. DataThief
B. NetCat
C. Cain and Abel
D. SQLInjector
Which of the following is a client-server tool utilized to evade firewall inspection?
A. tcp-over-dns
B. kismet
C. nikto
D. hping A
When an alert rule is matched in a network-based IDS like snort, the IDS does which of the following?
A. Drops the packet and moves on to the next one
B. Continues to evaluate the packet until all rules are checked
C. Stops checking rules, sends an alert, and lets the packet continue
D. Blocks the connection with the source IP address in the packet
An attacker sniffs encrypted traffic from the network and is subsequently able to decrypt it. The attacker can now use which cryptanalytic technique to attempt to discover the encryption key?
A. Birthday attack
B. Plaintext attack
C. Meet in the middle attack
D. Chosen ciphertext attack
What technique is used to perform a Connection Stream Parameter Pollution (CSPP) attack?
A. Injecting parameters into a connection string using semicolons as a separator
B. Inserting malicious Javascript code into input parameters
C. Setting a user’s session identifier (SID) to an explicit known value
D. Adding multiple parameters with the same name in HTTP requests
What is the main difference between a "Normal" SQL Injection and a "Blind" SQL Injection vulnerability?
A. The request to the web server is not visible to the administrator of the vulnerable application.
B. The attack is called “Blind” because, although the application properly filters user input, it is still vulnerable to code injection.
C. The successful attack does not show an error message to the administrator of the affected application.
D. The vulnerable application does not display errors with information about the injection results to the attacker.
Neil notices that a single address is generating traffic from its port 500 to port 500 of several other machines on the network. This scan is eating up most of the network bandwidth and Neil is concerned. As a security professional, what would you infer from this scan?
A. It is a network fault and the originating machine is in a network loop
B. It is a worm that is malfunctioning or hardcoded to scan on port 500
C. The attacker is trying to detect machines on the network which have SSL enabled
D. The attacker is trying to determine the type of VPN implementation and checking for IPSec
A Certificate Authority (CA) generates a key pair that will be used for encryption and decryption of email. The integrity of the encrypted email is dependent on the security of which of the following?
A. Public key
B. Private key
C. Modulus length
D. Email server certificate
When utilizing technical assessment methods to assess the security posture of a network, which of the following techniques would be most effective in determining whether end-user security training would be beneficial?
A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Social engineering
C. Application security testing
D. Network sniffing
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