JN0-351 Practice Questions Free – 50 Exam-Style Questions to Sharpen Your Skills
Are you preparing for the JN0-351 certification exam? Kickstart your success with our JN0-351 Practice Questions Free – a carefully selected set of 50 real exam-style questions to help you test your knowledge and identify areas for improvement.
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Below, you will find 50 free JN0-351 practice questions designed to match the real exam in both difficulty and topic coverage. They’re ideal for self-assessment or final review. You can click on each Question to explore the details.
In RSTP, which three port roles are associated with the discarding state? (Choose three.)
A. root
B. backup
C. alternate
D. disabled
E. designated
What are two characteristics of RSTP alternate ports? (Choose two.)
A. RSTP alternate ports block traffic while receiving superior BPDUs from a neighboring switch.
B. RSTP alternate ports provide an alternate lower cost path to the root bridge.
C. RSTP alternate ports provide an alternate higher cost path to the root bridge.
D. RSTP alternate ports are active ports used to forward frames toward the root bridge.
Which two statements about redundant trunk groups on EX Series switches are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Redundant trunk groups load-balance traffic across two designated uplink interfaces.
B. If the active link fails, then the secondary link automatically takes over.
C. Layer 2 control traffic is permitted on the secondary link.
D. Redundant trunk groups must be connected to the same aggregation switch.
Which statement is correct about controlling the routes installed by a RIB group?
A. An import policy is applied to the RIB group.
B. Only routes in the last table are installed
C. A firewall filter must be configured to install routes in the RIB groups.
D. An export policy is applied to the RIB group.
Which two statements about redundant trunk groups on EX Series switches are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Redundant trunk groups use spanning tree to provide loop-free redundant uplinks.
B. Redundant trunk groups load balance traffic across two designated uplink interfaces.
C. Layer 2 control traffic is permitted on the secondary link.
D. If the active link fails, then the secondary link automatically takes over.
You want to enable redundancy for the EBGP peering between the two routers shown in the exhibit. Which three actions will you perform in this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. Configure BGP multihop.
B. Configure loopback interface peering.
C. Configure routes for the peer loopback interface IP addresses.
D. Configure an MD5 peer authentication.
E. Configure a cluster ID.
Which statement is correct about the storm control feature?
A. The storm control feature is enabled in the factory-default configuration on EX Series switches.
B. The storm control feature requires a special license on EX Series switches.
C. The storm control feature is not supported on aggregate Ethernet interfaces.
D. The storm control configuration only applies to traffic being sent between the forwarding and control plane.
You are troubleshooting an issue where traffic to 192.168.10.0/24 is being sent to R1 instead of your desired path through R2. Referring to the exhibit, what is the reason for the problem?
A. R2’s route is not the best path due to loop prevention.
B. R2’s route is not the best path due to a lower origin code.
C. R1’s route is the best path due to a higher local preference.
D. R1’s route is the best path due to the shorter AS path.
You are attempting to configure the initial two aggregated Ethernet interfaces on a router but there are no aggregated Ethernet interfaces available. In this scenario, which configuration will enable these interfaces on this router?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which two statements are true about the default VLAN on Juniper switches? (Choose two.)
A. The default VLAN is set to a VLAN ID of 1 by default
B. The default VLAN ID is not assigned to any interface.
C. The default VLAN ID is not visible.
D. The default VLAN ID can be changed.
Which two types of tunnels are able to be created on all Junos devices? (Choose two.)
A. STP
B. GRE
C. IP-IP
D. IPsec
An update to your organization's network security requirements document requires management traffic to be isolated in a non-default routing-instance. You want to implement this requirement on your Junos-based devices. Which two commands enable this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. set routing-instances mgmt_junos interface ge-0/0/0
B. set routing-instances mgmt_junos interface em1
C. set system management-instance
D. set routing-instances mgmt_junos
You are using OSPF to advertise the subnets that are used by the Denver and Dallas offices. The routers that are directly connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets are not advertising the connected subnets. Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Create static routes on the switches using the local vMX router’s loopback interface for the next hop.
B. Configure and apply a routing policy that redistributes the Dallas and Denver subnets using Type 5 LSAs.
C. Configure and apply a routing policy that redistributes the connected Dallas and Denver subnets.
D. Enable the passive option on the OSPF interfaces that are connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets.
Which statement is correct about the IS-IS ISO NET address?
A. An ISO NET address defined with a system ID of 0000.0000.0000 must be selected as the DIS.
B. An ISO NET address must be unique for each device in the network.
C. You can only define a single ISO NET address per device.
D. The Area ID must match on all devices within a L2 area.
What are two reasons for creating multiple areas in OSPF? (Choose two.)
A. to reduce the convergence time
B. to increase the number of adjacencies in the backbone
C. to increase the size of the LSDB
D. to reduce LSA flooding across the network
Which statement is correct about the storm control feature?
A. The storm control feature is enabled in the factory-default configuration on EX Series switches.
B. The storm control feature requires a special license on EX Series switches.
C. The storm control feature is not supported on aggregate Ethernet interfaces.
D. The storm control configuration only applies to traffic being sent between the forwarding and control plane.
You have configured a GRE tunnel. To reduce the risk of dropping traffic, you have configured a keepalive OAM probe to monitor the state of the tunnel; however, traffic drops are still occurring. Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem?
A. For GRE tunnels, the OAM protocol requires that the BFD protocols also be used.
B. The “event link-adjacency-loss” option must be set
C. LLDP needs to be removed from the gr-1/1/10.1 interface.
D. The hold time value must be two times the keepalive-time value
You implemented the MAC address limit feature with the shutdown action on all interfaces on your switch. In this scenario, which statement is correct when a violation occurs?
A. By default, you must manually clear the violation for the interface to send and receive traffic again.
B. By default, the violation will automatically be cleared after 300 seconds and the interface will resume sending and receiving traffic for all learned devices.
C. By default, devices that are learned before the violation occurs are still allowed to send and receive traffic through the specific interface.
D. By default, the interface will continue to send and receive traffic for all connected devices after a violation has occurred.
An update to your organization's network security requirements document requires management traffic to be isolated in a non-default routing-instance. You want to implement this requirement on your Junos-based devices. Which two commands enable this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. set routing-instances mgmt_junos interface ge-0/0/0
B. set routing-instances mgmt_junos interface em1
C. set system management-instance
D. set routing-instances mgmt_junos
Which two statements are correct about tunnels? (Choose two.)
A. BFD cannot be used to monitor tunnels.
B. Tunnel endpoints must have a valid route to the remote tunnel endpoint.
C. IP-IP tunnels are stateful.
D. Tunnels add additional overhead to packet size.
You need to configure a LAG between your switches. In this scenario, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Duplex and speed settings are not required to match on both participating devices.
B. Duplex and speed settings are required to match on both participating devices.
C. Member links are not required to be contiguous ports.
D. Member links are required to be contiguous ports.
You have configured the four EX Series switches with RSTP, as shown in the exhibit. You discover that whenever a link between switches goes up or down, the switches take longer than expected for RSTP to converge, using the default settings. In this scenario, which action would solve the delay in RSTP convergence?
A. The hello-time must be increased.
B. The force-version must be removed.
C. The bridge priority for EX-4 must be set at 4000.
D. The max-age must be increased to 20.
You have configured a GRE tunnel. To reduce the risk of dropping traffic, you have configured a keepalive OAM probe to monitor the state of the tunnel; however, traffic drops are still occurring. Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem?
A. For GRE tunnels, the OAM protocol requires that the BFD protocols also be used.
B. The “event link-adjacency-loss” option must be set
C. LLDP needs to be removed from the gr-1/1/10.1 interface.
D. The hold time value must be two times the keepalive-time value
You are asked to connect an IP phone and a user computer using the same interface on an EX Series switch. The traffic from the computer does not use a VLAN tag, whereas the traffic from the IP phone uses a VLAN tag. Which feature enables the interface to receive both types of traffic?
A. native VLAN
B. DHCP snooping
C. MAC limiting
D. voice VLAN
You want to use filter-based forwarding (FBF) on your Internet peering router to load-balance traffic to two directly connected ISPs based on the source address. Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. FBF uses the no-forwarding routing instance type.
B. FBF uses the forwarding routing instance type.
C. RIB groups are used to copy routes from the inet.0 routing table.
D. RIB groups are used to hide routes in the inet.0 routing table.
Which two mechanisms are part of building and maintaining a Layer 2 bridge table? (Choose two.)
A. blocking
B. flooding
C. learning
D. listening
Which command displays the output shown in the exhibit?
A. show route forwarding-table
B. show ethernet-switching table
C. show ethernet-switching table extensive
D. show route forwarding-table family ethernet-switching
What is the default keepalive time for BGP?
A. 10 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 30 seconds
D. 90 seconds
What is the management IP address of the device shown in the exhibit?
A. 10.210.20.233
B. 172.23.12.100
C. 128.0.0.1
D. 172.23.11.10
What is the maximum allowable MTU size for a default GRE tunnel without IPv4 traffic fragmentation?
A. 1496 bytes
B. 1480 bytes
C. 1500 bytes
D. 1476 bytes
You have DHCP snooping enabled but no entries are automatically created in the snooping database for an interface on your EX Series switch. What are two reasons for the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The device that is connected to the interface has performed a DHCPRELEASE.
B. MAC limiting is enabled on the interface.
C. The device that is connected to the interface has a static IP address.
D. Dynamic ARP inspection is enabled on the interface.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. The local device is using a bridge priority of 4k.
B. The root bridge is using a bridge priority of 4k.
C. The root bridge has not been elected for this RSTP topology
D. The local device is the root bridge for this RSTP topology.
You are a network operator who wants to add a second ISP connection and remove the default route to the existing ISP. You decide to deploy the BGP protocol in the network. What two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. IBGP updates the next-hop attribute to ensure reachability within an AS.
B. IBGP peers advertise routes received from EBGP peers to other IBGP peers.
C. IBGP peers advertise routes received from IBGP peers to other IBGP peers.
D. EBGP peers advertise routes received from IBGP peers to other EBGP peers.
In RSTP, which three port roles are associated with the discarding state? (Choose three.)
A. root
B. backup
C. alternate
D. disabled
E. designated
The ISP1.inet.0 route table has currently no routes in it. What will happen when you commit the configuration shown on the exhibit?
A. The inet.0 route table will be completely overwritten by the ISP1.inet.0 route table.
B. The inet.0 route table will be imported into the ISP1.inet.0 route table.
C. The ISP1.inet.0 route table will be completely overwritten by the inet.0 route table.
D. The ISP1.inet.0 route table will be imported into the inet.0 route table.
Which two statements correctly describe RSTP port roles? (Choose two.)
A. The designated port forwards data to the downstream network segment or device.
B. The backup port is used as a backup for the root port.
C. The alternate port is a standby port for an edge port.
D. The root port is responsible for forwarding data to the root bridge.
You are a network operator troubleshooting BGP connectivity. Which two statements are correct about the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Peer 10.32.1.2 is configured for AS 63645.
B. The BGP session is not established.
C. The R1 is configured for AS 65400.
D. The routers are exchanging IPv4 routes.
You are troubleshooting a BGP routing issue between your network and a customer router and are reviewing the BGP routing policies. Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Export policies are applied to routes in the RIB-In table.
B. Import policies are applied to routes in the RIB-Local table.
C. Import policies are applied after the RIB-In table.
D. Export policies are applied after the RIB-Local table.
Referring to the exhibit, which two configuration changes must you apply for packets to reach from R1 to R3 using IS-IS? (Choose two.)
A. On R1, enable Level 1 on the ge-0/0/1 interface.
B. On R3 disable Level 2 on the ge-0/0/4 interface.
C. On R1, disable Level 2 on the ge-0/0/1 interface.
D. On R3 enable Level 1 on the ge-0/0/4 interface.
What is the default MAC age-out timer on an EX Series switch?
A. 30 minutes
B. 30 seconds
C. 300 minutes
D. 300 seconds
Which two statements about BGP facilitate the prevention of routing loops between two autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
A. EBGP routers will append their AS number when advertising routes to their neighbors.
B. EBGP routers will only accept routes that contain their own AS number in the AS_PATH.
C. EBGP routers will drop routes that contain their own AS number in the AS_PATH.
D. EBGP routers will prepend their AS number when advertising routes to their neighbors.
Referring to the exhibit, which router will become the OSPF BDR if all routers are powered on at the same time?
A. R4
B. R1
C. R3
D. R2
Referring to the output shown in the exhibit, which statement is correct?
A. The state is normal for a DR neighbor.
B. The state is normal for a DRother neighbor.
C. An MTU mismatch exists between the OSPF neighbors.
D. An area ID mismatch exists between the OSPF neighbors.
Which statement about aggregate routes is correct?
A. Aggregate routes can only be used for static routing but not for dynamic routing protocols.
B. Aggregate routes are automatically generated for all of the subnets in a routing table.
C. Aggregate routes are always preferred over more specific routes, even when the specific routes have a better path.
D. Aggregate routes are used for advertising summarized network prefixes.
After receiving a BGP route, which two conditions are verified by the receiving router to ensure that the received route is valid? (Choose two.)
A. The AS-path length is greater than 0.
B. The loops do not exist.
C. The next hop is reachable.
D. The local preference is greater than 0.
Which two statements are correct about using firewall filters on EX Series switches? (Choose two.)
A. You can deploy only stateless firewall filters on an EX Series switch.
B. You can only apply firewall filters to Layer 2 traffic on an EX Series switch.
C. You can apply firewall filters to both Layer 2 and Layer 3 traffic on an EX Series switch.
D. You can deploy both stateless and stateful firewall filters on an EX Series switch.
You are an operator for a network running IS-IS. Two routers are failing to form an adjacency. What are two reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. There are mismatched router IDs on the L2 routers.
B. There is no configured ISO address on any IS-IS interface.
C. There is a mismatched area ID between the L2 routers.
D. The family iso configuration is missing from the adjacency interface.
After receiving a BGP route, which two conditions are verified by the receiving router to ensure that the received route is valid? (Choose two.)
A. The AS-path length is greater than 0.
B. The loops do not exist.
C. The next hop is reachable.
D. The local preference is greater than 0.
Which two events cause a router to advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors? (Choose two.)
A. When an OSPF adjacency is established.
B. When an interface has the OSPF passive option enabled.
C. When a static route to the 224.0.0.6 address is created.
D. When a static route to the 224.0.0.5 address is created.
Referring to the exhibit, which two configuration changes must you apply for packets to reach from R1 to R3 using IS-IS? (Choose two.)
A. On R1, enable Level 1 on the ge-0/0/1 interface.
B. On R3 disable Level 2 on the ge-0/0/4 interface.
C. On R1, disable Level 2 on the ge-0/0/1 interface.
D. On R3 enable Level 1 on the ge-0/0/4 interface.
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