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CRISC Practice Questions Free

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  • CRISC Practice Questions Free – 50 Exam-Style Questions to Sharpen Your Skills
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CRISC Practice Questions Free – 50 Exam-Style Questions to Sharpen Your Skills

Are you preparing for the CRISC certification exam? Kickstart your success with our CRISC Practice Questions Free – a carefully selected set of 50 real exam-style questions to help you test your knowledge and identify areas for improvement.

Practicing with CRISC practice questions free gives you a powerful edge by allowing you to:

  • Understand the exam structure and question formats
  • Discover your strong and weak areas
  • Build the confidence you need for test day success

Below, you will find 50 free CRISC practice questions designed to match the real exam in both difficulty and topic coverage. They’re ideal for self-assessment or final review. You can click on each Question to explore the details.

Question 1

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that outsourced service providers comply with the enterprise's information security policy?

A. Penetration testing

B. Service level monitoring

C. Security awareness training

D. Periodic audits

 


Suggested Answer: D

As regular audits can spot gaps in information security compliance, periodic audits can ensure that outsourced service provider comply with the enterprise’s information security policy.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Penetration testing can identify security vulnerability, but cannot ensure information compliance.
B: Service level monitoring can only identify operational issues in the enterprise’s operational environment. It does not play any role in ensuring that outsourced service provider complies with the enterprise’s information security policy.
C: Training can increase user awareness of the information security policy, but is less effective than periodic auditing.

 

Question 2

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to trace the impact of aggregated risk across an organization's technical environment?

A. Business case documentation

B. Organizational risk appetite statement

C. Enterprise architecture (EA) documentation

D. Organizational hierarchy

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 3

Which of the following aspects are included in the Internal Environment Framework of COSO ERM?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose three.)

A. Enterprise’s integrity and ethical values

B. Enterprise’s working environment

C. Enterprise’s human resource standards

D. Enterprise’s risk appetite

 


Suggested Answer: ACD

The internal environment for risk management is the foundational level of the COSO ERM framework, which describes the philosophical basics of managing risks within the implementing enterprise. The different aspects of the internal environment include the enterprise’s:
✑ Philosophy on risk management
✑ Risk appetite
✑ Attitudes of Board of Directors
✑ Integrity and ethical values
✑ Commitment to competence
✑ Organizational structure
✑ Authority and responsibility
✑ Human resource standards

 

Question 4

The MOST significant benefit of using a consistent risk ranking methodology across an organization is that it enables:

A. assignment of risk to the appropriate owners.

B. allocation of available resources.

C. risk to be expressed in quantifiable terms.

D. clear understanding of risk levels.

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 5

Which of the following is the BEST way to quantify the likelihood of risk materialization?

A. Balanced scorecard

B. Business impact analysis (BIA)

C. Threat and vulnerability assessment

D. Compliance assessments

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 6

An organization has just implemented changes to close an identified vulnerability that impacted a critical business process. What should be the NEXT course of action?

A. Update the risk register

B. Review the risk tolerance

C. Perform a business impact analysis (BIA)

D. Redesign the heat map.

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 7

Which of the following is MOST important to the integrity of a security log?

A. Least privilege access

B. Encryption

C. Inability to edit

D. Ability to overwrite

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 8

A hospital's Internet of Things (IoT) bio-medical devices were recently hacked. Which of the following methods would BEST assist in identifying the control deficiencies?

A. SWOT analysis

B. Countermeasure analysis

C. Business impact analysis (BIA)

D. Gap analysis

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 9

Which of the following is MOST useful for measuring the existing risk management process against a desired date?

A. Capability maturity model

B. Risk scenario analysis

C. Risk management framework

D. Balanced scorecard

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 10

Which of the following is the BEST approach for obtaining management buy-in to implement additional IT controls?

A. Present new key risk indicators (KRIs) based on industry benchmarks.

B. Provide information on new governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) platform functionalities.

C. Describe IT risk impact on organizational processes in monetary terms.

D. List requirements based on a commonly accepted IT risk management framework.

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 11

Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of implementing a risk management program?

A. Promoting a risk-aware culture

B. Improving security governance

C. Enabling risk-aware decisions

D. Reducing residual risk

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 12

A penetration test reveals several vulnerabilities in a web-facing application. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in selecting a risk response?

A. Assess the level of risk associated with the vulnerabilities.

B. Communicate the vulnerabilities to the risk owner.

C. Correct the vulnerabilities to mitigate potential risk exposure.

D. Develop a risk response action plan with key stakeholders.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 13

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy?

A. The organization’s risk appetite statement

B. Legal and regulatory requirements

C. IT goals and objectives

D. Organizational goals and objectives

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 14

Which of the following is the BEST approach for an organization in a heavily regulated industry to comprehensively test application functionality?

A. Use production data in a non-production environment.

B. Use anonymized data in a non-production environment.

C. Use test data in a production environment.

D. Use masked data in a non-production environment.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 15

An organization recently completed a major restructuring project to reduce overhead costs by streamlining the approval hierarchy. Which of the following should be done FIRST by the control owner?

A. Evaluate effectiveness of risk responses.

B. Revise risk classifications.

C. Execute control test plans.

D. Analyze the control assessments.

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 16

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of a three lines of defense structure?

A. Clear accountability for risk management processes

B. An effective risk culture that empowers employees to report risk

C. Improved effectiveness and efficiency of business operations

D. Effective segregation of duties to prevent internal fraud

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 17

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an organization’s patch management process?

A. Percentage of systems with the latest patches

B. Average time to implement system patches

C. Number of updates to the patch management policy

D. Number of systems subject to regular vulnerability scans

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 18

A separation of duties control can no longer be sustained due to resource reductions at an organization. Who is BEST suited to decide if additional compensating controls are needed?

A. Risk owner

B. Compliance manager

C. Control owner

D. Risk practitioner

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 19

You are the project manager of a HGT project that has recently finished the final compilation process. The project customer has signed off on the project completion and you have to do few administrative closure activities. In the project, there were several large risks that could have wrecked the project but you and your project team found some new methods to resolve the risks without affecting the project costs or project completion date. What should you do with the risk responses that you have identified during the project's monitoring and controlling process?

A. Include the responses in the project management plan.

B. Include the risk responses in the risk management plan.

C. Include the risk responses in the organization’s lessons learned database.

D. Nothing. The risk responses are included in the project’s risk register already.

 


Suggested Answer: C

The risk responses that do not exist up till then, should be included in the organization’s lessons learned database so other project managers can use these responses in their project if relevant.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The responses are not in the project management plan, but in the risk response plan during the project and they’ll be entered into the organization’s lessons learned database.
B: The risk responses are included in the risk response plan, but after completing the project, they should be entered into the organization’s lessons learned database.
D: If the new responses that were identified is only included in the project’s risk register then it may not be shared with project managers working on some other project.

 

Question 20

Key control indicators (KCIs) help to assess the effectiveness of the internal control environment PRIMARILY by:

A. enabling senior leadership to better understand the level of risk the organization is facing.

B. ensuring controls are operating efficiently and facilitating productivity.

C. monitoring changes in the likelihood of adverse events due to ineffective controls.

D. providing information on the degree to which controls are meeting intended objectives.

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 21

Which of the following situations presents the GREATEST challenge to creating a comprehensive IT risk profile of an organization?

A. Manual vulnerability scanning processes

B. Inaccurate documentation of enterprise architecture (EA)

C. Organizational reliance on third-party service providers

D. Risk-averse organizational risk appetite

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 22

Which of the following would MOST effectively mitigate the risk of data loss when production data is being used in a testing environment?

A. Data obfuscation

B. Database encryption

C. Access management

D. Data cleansing and normalization

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 23

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the maturity of an organization's security incident handling process?

A. The number of resolved security incidents

B. The number of security incidents escalated to senior management

C. The number of newly identified security incidents

D. The number of recurring security incidents

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 24

Which of the following BEST assists in justifying an investment in automated controls?

A. Alignment of investment with risk appetite

B. Reduction in personnel costs

C. Elimination of compensating controls

D. Cost-benefit analysis

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 25

You are the project manager in your enterprise. You have identified occurrence of risk event in your enterprise. You have pre-planned risk responses. You have monitored the risks that had occurred. What is the immediate step after this monitoring process that has to be followed in response to risk events?

A. Initiate incident response

B. Update the risk register

C. Eliminate the risk completely

D. Communicate lessons learned from risk events

 


Suggested Answer: A

When the risk events occur then following tasks have to done to react to it:
✑ Maintain incident response plans
✑ Monitor risk
✑ Initiate incident response
✑ Communicate lessons learned from risk events

 

Question 26

You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are preparing for the risk identification process. You will need to involve several of the project's key stakeholders to help you identify and communicate the identified risk events. You will also need several documents to help you and the stakeholders identify the risk events. Which one of the following is NOT a document that will help you identify and communicate risks within the project?

A. Stakeholder registers

B. Activity duration estimates

C. Activity cost estimates

D. Risk register

 


Suggested Answer: D

Risk register is not an input to risk identification, but it is an output of risk identification.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, C: These are an input to risk identification.
Identify Risks is the process of determining which risks may affect the project. It also documents risks’ characteristics. The Identify Risks process is part of the
Project Risk Management knowledge area. As new risks may evolve or become known as the project progresses through its life cycle, Identify Risks is an iterative process. The process should involve the project team so that they can develop and maintain a sense of ownership and responsibility for the risks and associated risk response actions. Risk Register is the only output of this process.

 

Question 27

Which of the following IT key risk indicators (KRIs) provides management with the BEST feedback on IT capacity?

A. Trends in IT resource usage.

B. Increased resource availability.

C. Trends in IT maintenance costs.

D. Increased number of incidents.

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 28

Which of the following is the BEST indication of a potential threat?

A. Excessive activity in system logs

B. Increase in identified system vulnerabilities

C. Excessive policy and standard exceptions

D. Ineffective risk treatment plans

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 29

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control action plan's implementation?

A. Increased risk appetite

B. Increased number of controls

C. Reduced risk level

D. Stakeholder commitment

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 30

A program manager has completed an unsuccessful disaster recovery test. Which of the following should the risk practitioner recommend as the NEXT course of action?

A. Identify what additional controls are needed

B. Update the business impact analysis (BIA)

C. Prioritize issues noted during the testing window

D. Communicate test results to management

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 31

To drive effective risk management, it is MOST important that an organization’s policy framework is:

A. mapped to an industry-standard framework.

B. aligned to the functional business structure.

C. approved by relevant stakeholders.

D. included in employee onboarding materials.

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 32

A recently purchased IT application does not meet project requirements. Of the following, who is accountable for the potential impact?

A. Business analyst

B. IT project team

C. IT project management office

D. Project sponsor

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 33

When formulating a social media policy to address information leakage, which of the following is the MOST important concern to address?

A. Using social media to maintain contact with business associates

B. Using social media for personal purposes during working hours

C. Sharing company information on social media

D. Sharing personal information on social media

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 34

Which of the following would be the result of a significant increase in the motivation of a malicious threat actor?

A. Increase in risk event likelihood

B. Increase in mitigating control costs

C. Increase in risk event impact

D. Increase in cybersecurity premiums

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 35

Which of the following is the MOST important criteria for selecting key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A. Historical data availability

B. Sensitivity and reliability

C. Ability to display trends

D. Implementation and reporting effort

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 36

Which of the following has the GREATEST positive impact on ethical compliance within the risk management process?

A. An independent ethics investigation team has been established

B. The risk practitioner is required to consult with the ethics committee.

C. Senior management demonstrates ethics in their day-to-day decision making.

D. Employees are required to complete ethics training courses annually.

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 37

You are the project manager of the GHY Project for your company. You need to complete a project management process that will be on the lookout for new risks, changing risks, and risks that are now outdated. Which project management process is responsible for these actions?

A. Risk planning

B. Risk monitoring and controlling

C. Risk identification

D. Risk analysis

 


Suggested Answer: B

The risk monitoring and controlling is responsible for identifying new risks, determining the status of risks that may have changed, and determining which risks may be outdated in the project.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risk planning creates the risk management plan and determines how risks will be identified, analyzed, monitored and controlled, and responded to.
C: Risk identification is a process that identifies risk events in the project.
D: Risk analysis helps determine the severity of the risk events, the risks’ priority, and the probability and impact of risks.

 

Question 38

Harry is the project manager of HDW project. He has identified a risk that could injure project team members. He does not want to accept any risk where someone could become injured on this project so he hires a professional vendor to complete this portion of the project work. What type of risk response is Harry implementing?

A. Transference

B. Mitigation

C. Acceptance

D. Avoidance

 


Suggested Answer: A

Risk transfer means that impact of risk is reduced by transferring or otherwise sharing a portion of the risk with an external organization or another internal entity.
Transfer of risk can occur in many forms but is most effective when dealing with financial risks. Insurance is one form of risk transfer. Hence when Harry hires a professional vendor to manage that risk, the risk event does not go away but the responsibility for the event is transferred to the vendor.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Risk acceptance means that no action is taken relative to a particular risk; loss is accepted if it occurs. Here Harry is not accepting this risk event; he does not want anyone of his team to become injured so he’s transferring the event to professional vendor.
C: Mitigation are actions that Harry’s project team could take to reduce the probability and/or impact of a risk event.
D: Avoidance removes the risk event entirely either by adding additional steps to avoid the event or reducing the project scope.

 

Question 39

To effectively support business decisions, an IT risk register MUST:

A. reflect the results of risk assessments.

B. effectively support a business maturity model.

C. be available to operational risk groups.

D. be reviewed by the IT steering committee.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 40

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of a key risk indicator (KRI) to enable decision-making?

A. Listing alternative causes for risk events

B. Setting minimum sample sizes to ensure accuracy

C. Monitoring the risk until exposure is reduced

D. Illustrating changes in risk trends

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 41

Which process is MOST effective to determine relevance of threats for risk scenarios?

A. Penetration testing

B. Vulnerability assessment

C. Root cause analysis

D. Business impact analysis (BIA)

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 42

Which of the following processes addresses the risks by their priorities, schedules the project management plan as required, and inserts resources and activities into the budget?

A. Monitor and Control Risk

B. Plan risk response

C. Identify Risks

D. Qualitative Risk Analysis

 


Suggested Answer: B

The plan risk response project management process aims to reduce the threats to the project objectives and to increase opportunities. It follows the perform qualitative risk analysis process and perform quantitative risk analysis process. Plan risk response process includes the risk response owner to take the job for each agreed-to and funded risk response. This process addresses the risks by their priorities, schedules the project management plan as required, and inserts resources and activities into the budget. The inputs to the plan risk response process are as follows:
Risk register –
Risk management plan –
Incorrect Answers:
A: Monitor and Control Risk is the process of implementing risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risk, identifying new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project. It can involve choosing alternative strategies, executing a contingency or fallback plan, taking corrective action, and modifying the project management plan.
C: Identify Risks is the process of determining which risks may affect the project. It also documents risks’ characteristics. The Identify Risks process is part of the
Project Risk Management knowledge area. As new risks may evolve or become known as the project progresses through its life cycle, Identify Risks is an iterative process. The process should involve the project team so that they can develop and maintain a sense of ownership and responsibility for the risks and associated risk response actions. Risk Register is the only output of this process.
✑ D: Qualitative analysis is the definition of risk factors in terms of high/medium/low or a numeric scale (1 to 10). Hence it determines the nature of risk on a relative scale.
✑ Some of the qualitative methods of risk analysis are:
✑ Scenario analysis- This is a forward-looking process that can reflect risk for a given point in time.
✑ Risk Control Self -assessment (RCSA) – RCSA is used by enterprises (like banks) for the identification and evaluation of operational risk exposure. It is a logical first step and assumes that business owners and managers are closest to the issues and have the most expertise as to the source of the risk. RCSA is a constructive process in compelling business owners to contemplate, and then explain, the issues at hand with the added benefit of increasing their accountability.

 

Question 43

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to promote organization-wide awareness of data security in response to an increase in regulatory penalties for data leakage?

A. Enforce sanctions for noncompliance with security procedures.

B. Require regular testing of the data breach response plan.

C. Conduct organization-wide phishing simulations.

D. Require training on the data handling policy.

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

 

Question 44

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action when an organization has decided to expand into new product areas?

A. Review existing risk scenarios with stakeholders.

B. Present a business case for new controls to stakeholders.

C. Revise the organization’s risk and control policy.

D. Identify any new business objectives with stakeholders.

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 45

An organization is participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis. Which of the following is the
MOST important control to ensure the privacy of customer information?

A. Data anonymization

B. Data cleansing

C. Data encryption

D. Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

 

Question 46

Which of the following statements are true for enterprise's risk management capability maturity level 3?

A. Workflow tools are used to accelerate risk issues and track decisions

B. The business knows how IT fits in the enterprise risk universe and the risk portfolio view

C. The enterprise formally requires continuous improvement of risk management skills, based on clearly defined personal and enterprise goals

D. Risk management is viewed as a business issue, and both the drawbacks and benefits of risk are recognized

 


Suggested Answer: ABD

An enterprise’s risk management capability maturity level is 3 when:
✑ Risk management is viewed as a business issue, and both the drawbacks and benefits of risk are recognized.
✑ There is a selected leader for risk management, engaged with the enterprise risk committee, across the enterprise.
✑ The business knows how IT fits in the enterprise risk universe and the risk portfolio view.
✑ Local tolerances drive the enterprise risk tolerance.
✑ Risk management activities are being aligned across the enterprise.
✑ Formal risk categories are identified and described in clear terms.
✑ Situations and scenarios are included in risk awareness training beyond specific policy and structures and promote a common language for communicating risk.
✑ Defined requirements exist for a centralized inventory of risk issues.
✑ Workflow tools are used to accelerate risk issues and track decisions.
Incorrect Answers:
C: Enterprise having risk management capability maturity level 5 requires continuous improvement of risk management skills, based on clearly defined personal and enterprise goals.

 

Question 47

What is the PRIMARY reason to periodically review key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A. Identify trends

B. Optimize resources needed for controls

C. Ensure compliance

D. Promote a risk-aware culture

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

Question 48

You are the risk official at Bluewell Inc. There are some risks that are posing threat on your enterprise. You are measuring exposure of those risk factors, which has the highest potential, by examining the extent to which the uncertainty of each element affects the object under consideration when all other uncertain elements are held at their baseline values. Which type of analysis you are performing?

A. Sensitivity analysis

B. Fault tree analysis

C. Cause-and-effect analysis

D. Scenario analysis

 


Suggested Answer: A

Sensitivity analysis is the quantitative risk analysis technique that:
✑ Assist in determination of risk factors that have the most potential impact
✑ Examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each element affects the object under consideration when all other uncertain elements are held at their baseline values
Incorrect Answers:
B: Fault tree analysis provides a systematic description of the combination of possible undesirable occurrences in a system. It does not measure the extent of uncertainty.
C: Cause-and-effect analysis involves the use of predictive or diagnostic analytical tool for exploring the root causes or factors that contribute to positive or negative effects or outcomes, and not the extent of uncertainty.
D: Scenario analysis provides ability to see a range of values across several scenarios to identify risk in specific situation. It provides ability to identify those inputs which will provide the greatest level of uncertainty. But it plays no role in determining the extent of uncertainty.

 

Question 49

Which of the following MUST be updated to maintain an IT risk register?

A. Risk appetite

B. Risk tolerance

C. Expected frequency and potential impact

D. Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

 

Question 50

After mapping generic risk scenarios to organizational security policies, the NEXT course of action should be to:

A. record risk scenarios in the risk register for analysis

B. validate the risk scenarios for business applicability

C. reduce the number of risk scenarios to a manageable set

D. perform a risk analysis on the risk scenarios

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

 

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