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  • 312-38 Practice Test Free – 50 Real Exam Questions to Boost Your Confidence
  • Free Access Full 312-38 Practice Test Free Questions

312-38 Practice Test Free – 50 Real Exam Questions to Boost Your Confidence

Preparing for the 312-38 exam? Start with our 312-38 Practice Test Free – a set of 50 high-quality, exam-style questions crafted to help you assess your knowledge and improve your chances of passing on the first try.

Taking a 312-38 practice test free is one of the smartest ways to:

  • Get familiar with the real exam format and question types
  • Evaluate your strengths and spot knowledge gaps
  • Gain the confidence you need to succeed on exam day

Below, you will find 50 free 312-38 practice questions to help you prepare for the exam. These questions are designed to reflect the real exam structure and difficulty level. You can click on each Question to explore the details.

Question 1

The GMT enterprise is working on their internet and web usage policies. GMT would like to control internet bandwidth consumption by employees. Which group of policies would this belong to?

A. Enterprise Information Security Policy

B. Network Services Specific Security Policy

C. Issue Specific Security Policy

D. System Specific Security Policy

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

Question 2

Which of the following is the full form of SAINT?

A. System Automated Integrated Network Tool

B. Security Admin Integrated Network Tool

C. System Admin Integrated Network Tool

D. System Administrators Integrated Network Tool

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

 

Question 3

Docker provides Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) through ________ and delivers containerized software packages.

A. Server-level virtualization

B. Network-level virtualization

C. OS-level virtualization

D. Storage-level virtualization

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

 

Question 4

Which of the following statements are true about a wireless network?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Data can be shared easily between wireless devices.

B. It provides mobility to users to access a network.

C. Data can be transmitted in different ways by using Cellular Networks, Mobitex, DataTAC, etc.

D. It is easy to connect.

 


Suggested Answer: ABCD

Community Answer: ABCD

 

Question 5

DRAG DROP -
George works as a Network Administrator for Blue Soft Inc. The company uses Windows Vista operating system. The network of the company is continuously connected to the Internet. What will George use to protect the network of the company from intrusion?
Select and Place:
 Image

 


Suggested Answer:
Correct Answer Image

A firewall is a set of related programs configured to protect private networks connected to the Internet from intrusion. It is used to regulate the network traffic between different computer networks. It permits or denies the transmission of a network packet to its destination based on a set of rules. A firewall is often installed on a separate computer so that an incoming packet does not get into the network directly.

Question 6

Which phase of incident response process involves collection of incident evidence and sending them to forensic department for further investigation?

A. Incident containment

B. Incident recording and assignment

C. Eradication

D. Preparation for incident response

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: A

 

Question 7

Management decides to implement a risk management system to reduce and maintain the organization's risk at an acceptable level. Which of the following is the correct order in the risk management phase?

A. Risk Identification, Risk Assessment, Risk Treatment, Risk Monitoring & Review

B. Risk Identification, Risk Assessment, Risk Monitoring & Review, Risk Treatment

C. Risk Treatment, Risk Monitoring & Review, Risk Identification, Risk Assessment

D. Risk Assessment, Risk Treatment, Risk Monitoring & Review, Risk Identification

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

 

Question 8

You are tasked to perform black hat vulnerability assessment for a client. You received official written permission to work with: company site, forum, Linux server with LAMP, where this site hosted. Which vulnerability assessment tool should you consider to use?

A. dnsbrute

B. hping

C. OpenVAS

D. wireshark

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

Question 9

Which of the following conditions cannot enter the system ROM monitor mode? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. The router does not find a valid operating system image.

B. The router does not have the configuration file.

C. The user interrupts the boot sequence.

D. It is necessary to set the operating parameters.

 


Suggested Answer: AC

Community Answer: BD

 

Question 10

Which of the following cables is made of glass or plastic and transmits signals in the form of light?

A. Coaxial cable

B. Twisted pair cable

C. Plenum cable

D. Fiber optic cable

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Fiber optic cable is also known as optical fiber. It is made of glass or plastic and transmits signals in the form of light. It is of cylindrical shape and consists of three concentric sections: the core, the cladding, and the jacket. Optical fiber carries much more information than conventional copper wire and is in general not subject to electromagnetic interference and the need to retransmit signals. Most telephone company’s long-distance lines are now made of optical fiber. Transmission over an optical fiber cable requires repeaters at distance intervals. The glass fiber requires more protection within an outer cable than copper.
Answer option B is incorrect. Twisted pair cabling is a type of wiring in which two conductors (the forward and return conductors of a single circuit) are twisted together for the purposes of canceling out electromagnetic interference (EMI) from external sources. It consists of the following twisted pair cables:
Shielded Twisted Pair: Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) is a special kind of copper telephone wiring used in some business installations. An outer covering or shield is added to the ordinary twisted pair telephone wires; the shield functions as a ground. Twisted pair is the ordinary copper wire that connects home and many business computers to the telephone company. Shielded twisted pair is often used in business installations. Unshielded Twisted Pair: Unshielded Twisted Pair
(UTP) is the ordinary wire used in home. UTP cable is also the most common cable used in computer networking. Ethernet, the most common data networking standard, utilizes UTP cables. Twisted pair cabling is often used in data networks for short and medium length connections because of its relatively lower costs compared to optical fiber and coaxial cable.UTP is also finding increasing use in video applications, primarily in security cameras. Many middle to high-end cameras include a UTP output with setscrew terminals. This is made possible by the fact that UTP cable bandwidth has improved to match the baseband of television signals.
Answer option A is incorrect. Coaxial cable is the kind of copper cable used by cable TV companies between the community antenna and user homes and businesses. Coaxial cable is sometimes used by telephone companies from their central office to the telephone poles near users. It is also widely installed for use in business and corporation Ethernet and other types of local area network. Coaxial cable is called “coaxial” because it includes one physical channel that carries the signal surrounded (after a layer of insulation) by another concentric physical channel, both running along the same axis. The outer channel serves as a ground. Many of these cables or pairs of coaxial tubes can be placed in a single outer sheathing and, with repeaters, can carry information for a great distance. It is shown in the figure below:
<img src=”https://www.examtopics.com/assets/media/exam-media/03651/0001900001.png” alt=”Reference Image” />
Answer option C is incorrect. Plenum cable is cable that is laid in the plenum spaces of buildings. The plenum is the space that can facilitate air circulation for heating and air conditioning systems, by providing pathways for either heated/conditioned or return airflows. Space between the structural ceiling and the dropped ceiling or under a raised floor is typically considered plenum. However, some drop ceiling designs create a tight seal that does not allow for airflow and therefore may not be considered a plenum air-handling space. The plenum space is typically used to house the communication cables for the building’s computer and telephone network.

Question 11

Which of the following attacks, the attacker cannot use the software, which is trying a number of key combinations in order to obtain your password?

A. Buffer overflow

B. Zero-day attack

C. Smurf attack

D. None

E. Shock brutal force

 


Suggested Answer: E

 

Question 12

Ryan works as a network security engineer at an organization the recently suffered an attack. As a countermeasure, Ryan would like to obtain more information about the attacker and chooses to deploy a honeypot into the organizations production environment called Kojoney. Using this honeypot, he would like to emulate the network vulnerability that was attacked previously. Which type of honeypot is he trying to implement?

A. High interaction honeypots

B. Research honeypot

C. Low interaction honeypots

D. Pure honeypots

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: D

 

Question 13

Which of the following refers to a potential occurrence of an undesired event that can eventually damage and interrupt the operational and functional activities of an organization?

A. Attack

B. Risk

C. Threat

D. Vulnerability

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

 

Question 14

Which BC/DR activity includes action taken toward resuming all services that are dependent on business-critical applications?

A. Response

B. Recovery

C. Resumption

D. Restoration

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

 

Question 15

CSMA/CD is specified in which of the following IEEE standards?

A. 802.3

B. 802.2

C. 802.1

D. 802.15

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

 

Question 16

Which of the following can be used to suppress fire from Class K sources?

A. Water

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Foam

D. Dry Chemical

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

 

Question 17

Which of the following tools is used to ping a given range of IP addresses and resolve the host name of the remote system?

A. SuperScan

B. Netscan

C. Hping

D. Nmap

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

Question 18

Which of the following commands is used for port scanning?

A. nc -t

B. nc -z

C. nc -v

D. nc -d

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

Question 19

The SOC manager is reviewing logs in AlienVault USM to investigate an intrusion on the network. Which CND approach is being used?

A. Retrospective

B. Reactive

C. Deterrent

D. Preventive

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

Question 20

Which among the following filter is used to detect a SYN/FIN attack?

A. tcp.flags==0x002

B. tcp.flags==0x004

C. tcp.flags==0x003

D. tcp.flags==0x001

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

 

Question 21

Which of the following steps OPSEC process examines every aspect of the proposed operation to identify the OPSEC indicators that can reveal important information and then compare them with indicators of the opponent's intelligence collection capabilities identified in the previous activity?

A. Identification of Critical Information

B. analysis weakness

C. risk assessment

D. Appropriate OPSEC measures

E. analysis of threats

 


Suggested Answer: E

Community Answer: E

 

Question 22

Which VPN QoS model guarantees the traffic from one customer edge (CE) to another?

A. Pipe model

B. Hose model

C. AAA model

D. Hub-and-Spoke VPN model

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

Question 23

Cindy is the network security administrator for her company. She just got back from a security conference in Las Vegas where they talked about all kinds of old and new security threats; many of which she did not know of. She is worried about the current security state of her company's network so she decides to start scanning the network from an external IP address. To see how some of the hosts on her network react, she sends out SYN packets to an IP range. A number of
IPs respond with a SYN/ACK response. Before the connection is established, she sends RST packets to those hosts to stop the session. She has done this to see how her intrusion detection system will log the traffic. What type of scan is Cindy attempting here?

A. The type of scan she is using is called a NULL scan.

B. Cindy is attempting to find live hosts on her company’s network by using a XMAS scan.

C. Cindy is using a half-open scan to find live hosts on her network.

D. She is utilizing a RST scan to find live hosts that are listening on her network.

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

Question 24

Which of the following helps in viewing account activity and events for supported services made by AWS?

A. AWS CloudFormation

B. AWS Certificate Manager

C. AWS CloudHSM

D. AWS CloudTrial

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

Question 25

Which of the following is a tool that runs on the Windows OS and analyzes iptables log messages to detect port scans and other suspicious traffic?

A. PSAD

B. Hping

C. NetRanger

D. Nmap

 


Suggested Answer: A

PSAD is a tool that runs on the Windows OS and analyzes iptables log messages to detect port scans and other suspicious traffic. It includes many signatures from the IDS to detect probes for various backdoor programs such as EvilFTP, GirlFriend, SubSeven, DDoS tools (mstream, shaft), and advanced port scans
(FIN, NULL, XMAS). If it is combined with fwsnort and the Netfilter string match extension, it detects most of the attacks described in the Snort rule set that involve application layer data.
Answer option C is incorrect. NetRanger is the complete network configuration and information toolkit that includes the following tools: Ping tool, Trace Route tool,
Host Lookup tool, Internet time synchronizer, Whois tool, Finger Unix hosts tool, Host and port scanning tool, check multiple POP3 mail accounts tool, manage dialup connections tool, Quote of the day tool, and monitor Network Settings tool. These tools are integrated in order to use an application interface with full online help. NetRanger is designed for both new and experienced users. This tool is used to help diagnose network problems and to get information about users, hosts, and networks on the Internet or on a user computer network. NetRanger uses multi-threaded and multi-connection technologies in order to be very fast and efficient.
Answer option D is incorrect. Nmap is a free open-source utility for network exploration and security auditing. It is used to discover computers and services on a computer network, thus creating a “map” of the network. Just like many simple port scanners, Nmap is capable of discovering passive services. In addition, Nmap may be able to determine various details about the remote computers. These include operating system, device type, uptime, software product used to run a service, exact version number of that product, presence of some firewall techniques and, on a local area network, even vendor of the remote network card. Nmap runs on Linux, Microsoft Windows, etc.

Question 26

You are monitoring your network traffic with the Wireshark utility and noticed that your network is experiencing a large amount of traffic from a certain region. You suspect a DoS incident on the network. What will be your first reaction as a first responder?

A. Avoid Fear, Uncertainty and Doubt

B. Communicate the incident

C. Make an initial assessment

D. Disable Virus Protection

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

 

Question 27

Which of the following is a 16-bit field that identifies the source port number of the application program in the host that is sending the segment?

A. Sequence Number

B. Header Length

C. Acknowledgment Number

D. Source Port Address

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

Source Port Address is a 16-bit field that identifies the source port number of the application program in the host that is sending the segment.
Answer option C is incorrect. This is a 32-bit field that identifies the byte number that the sender of the segment is expecting to receive from the receiver.
Answer option B is incorrect. This is a 4-bit field that defines the 4-byte words in the TCP header. The header length can be between 20 and 60 bytes. Therefore, the value of this field can be between 5 and 15.
Answer option A is incorrect. This is a 32-bit field that identifies the number assigned to the first byte of data contained in the segment.

Question 28

Which of the following steps of the OPSEC process examines each aspect of the planned operation to identify OPSEC indicators that could reveal critical information and then compare those indicators with the adversary's intelligence collection capabilities identified in the previous action?

A. Analysis of Threats

B. Application of Appropriate OPSEC Measures

C. Identification of Critical Information

D. Analysis of Vulnerabilities

E. Assessment of Risk

 


Suggested Answer: D

OPSEC is a 5-step process that helps in developing protection mechanisms in order to safeguard sensitive information and preserve essential secrecy.
The OPSEC process has five steps, which are as follows:
1.Identification of Critical Information: This step includes identifying information vitally needed by an adversary, which focuses the remainder of the OPSEC process on protecting vital information, rather than attempting to protect all classified or sensitive unclassified information.
2.Analysis of Threats: This step includes the research and analysis of intelligence, counter-intelligence, and open source information to identify likely adversaries to a planned operation.
3.Analysis of Vulnerabilities: It includes examining each aspect of the planned operation to identify OPSEC indicators that could reveal critical information and then comparing those indicators with the adversary’s intelligence collection capabilities identified in the previous action.
4.Assessment of Risk: Firstly, planners analyze the vulnerabilities identified in the previous action and identify possible OPSEC measures for each vulnerability.
Secondly, specific OPSEC measures are selected for execution based upon a risk assessment done by the commander and staff.
5.Application of Appropriate OPSEC Measures: The command implements the OPSEC measures selected in the assessment of risk action or, in the case of planned future operations and activities, includes the measures in specific OPSEC plans.

Question 29

Which of the following is a free security-auditing tool for Linux?

A. SAINT

B. SATAN

C. Nessus

D. HPing

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

Question 30

Dan and Alex are business partners working together. Their Business-Partner Policy states that they should encrypt their emails before sending to each other.
How will they ensure the authenticity of their emails?

A. Dan will use his digital signature to sign his mails while Alex will use Dan’s public key to verify the authenticity of the mails.

B. Dan will use his digital signature to sign his mails while Alex will use his private key to verify the authenticity of the mails.

C. Dan will use his private key to encrypt his mails while Alex will use his digital signature to verify the authenticity of the mails.

D. Dan will use his public key to encrypt his mails while Alex will use Dan’s digital signature to verify the authenticity of the mails.

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

 

Question 31

Paul is a network security technician working on a contract for a laptop manufacturing company in Chicago. He has focused primarily on securing network devices, firewalls, and traffic traversing in and out of the network. He just finished setting up a server a gateway between the internal private network and the outside public network. This server will act as a proxy, limited amount of services, and will filter packets. What is this type of server called?

A. Session layer firewall.

B. SOCKS host.

C. Bastion host.

D. Edge transport server.

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

Question 32

Which of the following attack signature analysis techniques are implemented to examine the header information and conclude that a packet has been altered?

A. Composite signature-based analysis

B. Atomic signature-based analysis

C. Content-based signature analysis

D. Context-based signature analysis

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

Question 33

James is working as a Network Administrator in a reputed company situated in California. He is monitoring his network traffic with the help of Wireshark. He wants to check and analyze the traffic against a PING sweep attack. Which of the following Wireshark filters will he use?

A. Icmp.type==8 or icmp.type==16

B. icmp.type==8 or icmp.type==0

C. icmp.type==8 and icmp.type==0

D. Icmp.type==0 and icmp.type==16

 


Suggested Answer: B

Community Answer: B

 

Question 34

Management asked their network administrator to suggest an appropriate backup medium for their backup plan that best suits their organization's need. Which of the following factors will the administrator consider when deciding on the appropriate backup medium? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Reliability

B. Capability

C. Accountability

D. Extensibility

 


Suggested Answer: ABD

Community Answer: ABD

 

Question 35

Which of the following is a compatible network device that converts various communication protocols and are used to connect different network technologies?

A. port

B. change

C. none

D. bridge

E. router

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: C

 

Question 36

John works as a C programmer. He develops the following C program:
 Image
His program is vulnerable to a __________ attack.

A. SQL injection

B. Denial-of-Service

C. Buffer overflow

D. Cross site scripting

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

This program takes a user-supplied string and copies it into ‘buffer1’, which can hold up to 10 bytes of data. If a user sends more than 10 bytes, it would result in a buffer overflow.

Question 37

The Circuit-level gateway firewall technology functions at which of the following OSI layer?

A. Transport layer

B. Data-link layer

C. Session layer

D. Network layer

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

Question 38

Which of the following is a Windows in-built feature that provides filesystem-level encryption in the OS (starting from Windows 2000), except the Home version of Windows?

A. EFS

B. Disk Utility

C. BitLocker

D. FileVault

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: A

 

Question 39

Which of the following is a mechanism that helps to ensure that only the intended and authorized recipients are able to read the data?

A. access to information

B. none

C. integrity

D. authentication

E. confidence

 


Suggested Answer: E

 

Question 40

Which among the following is used by anti-malware systems and threat intelligence platforms to spot and stop malicious activities at an initial stage?

A. Indicators of attack

B. Key risk indicators

C. Indicators of compromise

D. Indicators of exposure

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: D

 

Question 41

Adam works as a Professional Penetration Tester. A project has been assigned to him to test the vulnerabilities of the CISCO Router of Umbrella Inc. Adam finds out that HTTP Configuration Arbitrary Administrative Access Vulnerability exists in the router. By applying different password cracking tools, Adam gains access to the router. He analyzes the router config file and notices the following lines: logging buffered errors logging history critical logging trap warnings logging 10.0.1.103
By analyzing the above lines, Adam concludes that this router is logging at log level 4 to the syslog server 10.0.1.103. He decides to change the log level from 4 to
0.
Which of the following is the most likely reason of changing the log level?

A. Changing the log level from 4 to 0 will result in the logging of only emergencies. This way the modification in the router is not sent to the syslog server.

B. By changing the log level, Adam can easily perform a SQL injection attack.

C. Changing the log level grants access to the router as an Administrator.

D. Changing the log level from 4 to 0 will result in the termination of logging. This way the modification in the router is not sent to the syslog server.

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

The Router Log Level directive is used by the sys log server to specify the level of severity of the log. This directive is used to control the types of errors that are sent to the error log by constraining the severity level. Eight different levels are present in the Log Level directive, which are shown below in order of their descending significance:
Number Level Description –
0emergEmergencies – system is unusable
1alertAction must be taken immediately
2critCritical Conditions
3errorError conditions
4warnWarning conditions
5notice Normal but significant condition
6infoInformational
7debug Debug-level messages
Note: When a certain level is specified, the messages from all other levels of higher significance will also be reported. For example, when Log Level crit is specified, then messages with log levels of alert and emerg will also be reported.

Question 42

Who is an IR custodian?

A. An individual responsible for conveying company details after an incident

B. An individual who receives the initial IR alerts and leads the IR team in all the IR activities

C. An individual who makes a decision on the classifications and the severity of the incident identified

D. An individual responsible for the remediation and resolution of the incident that occurred

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

 

Question 43

Emmanuel works as a Windows system administrator at an MNC. He uses PowerShell to enforce the script execution policy. He wants to allow the execution of the scripts that are signed by a trusted publisher. Which of the following script execution policy setting this?

A. AllSigned

B. Restricted

C. RemoteSigned

D. Unrestricted

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

 

Question 44

Which of the following representatives of the incident response team takes forensic backups of systems that are the focus of an incident?

A. Technical representative

B. Lead investigator

C. Information security representative

D. Legal representative

 


Suggested Answer: A

A technical representative creates forensic backups of systems that are the focus of an incident and provides valuable information about the configuration of the network and target system.
Answer option B is incorrect. A lead investigator acts as the manager of the computer security incident response team.
Answer option D is incorrect. The legal representative looks after legal issues and ensures that the investigation process does not break any law.
Answer option C is incorrect. The information security representative informs about the security safeguards that may affect their ability to respond to the incident.

Question 45

Which Internet access policy starts with all services blocked and the administrator enables safe and necessary services individually, which provides maximum security and logs everything, such as system and network activities?

A. Internet access policy

B. Paranoid policy

C. Permissive policy

D. Prudent policy

 


Suggested Answer: D

Community Answer: D

 

Question 46

Which of the following connects the SDN controller and SDN networking devices and relays information from network services to network devices such as switches and routers?

A. Southbound API

B. Eastbound API

C. Westbound API

D. Northbound API

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

 

Question 47

Which of the following honeypots provides an attacker access to the real operating system without any restriction and collects a vast amount of information about the attacker?

A. High-interaction honeypot

B. Medium-interaction honeypot

C. Honeyd

D. Low-interaction honeypot

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: A

A high-interaction honeypot offers a vast amount of information about attackers. It provides an attacker access to the real operating system without any restriction.
A high-interaction honeypot is a powerful weapon that provides opportunities to discover new tools, to identify new vulnerabilities in the operating system, and to learn how blackhats communicate with one another.
Answer option D is incorrect. A low-interaction honeypot captures limited amounts of information that are mainly transactional data and some limited interactive information. Because of simple design and basic functionality, low-interaction honeypots are easy to install, deploy, maintain, and configure. A low-interaction honeypot detects unauthorized scans or unauthorized connection attempts. A low-interaction honeypot is like a one-way connection, as the honeypot provides services that are limited to listening ports. Its role is very passive and does not alter any traffic. It generates logs or alerts when incoming packets match their patterns.
Answer option B is incorrect. A medium-interaction honeypot offers richer interaction capabilities than a low-interaction honeypot, but does not provide any real underlying operating system target. Installing and configuring a medium-interaction honeypot takes more time than a low-interaction honeypot. It is also more complicated to deploy and maintain as compared to a low-interaction honeypot. A medium-interaction honeypot captures a greater amount of information but comes with greater risk. Answer option C is incorrect. Honeyd is an example of a low-interaction honeypot.

Question 48

Which of the following encryption techniques do digital signatures use?

A. MD5

B. RSA

C. Blowfish

D. IDEA

 


Suggested Answer: A

Community Answer: B

 

Question 49

Which of the following layers provides communication session management between host computers?

A. Application layer

B. Internet layer

C. Transport layer

D. Link layer

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

Question 50

Which of the following UTP cables supports transmission up to 20MHz?

A. Category 2

B. Category 5e

C. Category 4

D. Category 1

 


Suggested Answer: C

Community Answer: C

 

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