300-160 Practice Exam Free – 50 Questions to Simulate the Real Exam
Are you getting ready for the 300-160 certification? Take your preparation to the next level with our 300-160 Practice Exam Free – a carefully designed set of 50 realistic exam-style questions to help you evaluate your knowledge and boost your confidence.
Using a 300-160 practice exam free is one of the best ways to:
- Experience the format and difficulty of the real exam
- Identify your strengths and focus on weak areas
- Improve your test-taking speed and accuracy
Below, you will find 50 realistic 300-160 practice exam free questions covering key exam topics. Each question reflects the structure and challenge of the actual exam.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two descriptions of the configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. The STP is disabled on the vPC peer device.
B. The device is a secondary vPC device.
C. The device is a primary vPC device.
D. There are 55 vPC domains configured on the device.
E. The device is configured to act as an active gateway for packets destined for the MAC address of the peer device.
Which NHRP features active and standby virtual gateways?
A. GLBP
B. VRRP
C. HSRP
D. SSO
E. NSF
What introduces unique implications into the overall Data Center aggregation layer design? (Choose three.)
A. High-speed switching fabric with a high forwarding rate
B. Over-subscription values
C. Service Modules
D. IP routing
E. WAN
F. Internet Edge
Refer to the exhibit. Which two descriptions of the purpose of the L1-L2 links between FI A and FI B are true? (Choose two.)
A. synchronizes the configuration information
B. provides a vPC peer link between the fabric interconnects
C. allows each fabric interconnect to monitor the status of the other fabric interconnect continuously
D. provides an alternate data path if an upstream link fails
E. migrates VIFs from FI A to FI B if FI A fails
Service graphs are used to define which option on the Cisco ACI platform?
A. a function that a contract must use to get to another contract
B. a function that an EPG must use to get to another EPG
C. the contract between two EPGs
D. the Cisco APIC definitions of the contracts in REST API
Select two items that represent features of the Aggregation layer in the Data Center 3-layer design. (Choose two)
A. High-speed Layer 3 switching
B. First-Hop Routing Protocols
C. Demarcation point between static and dynamic routing protocols
D. QoS Marking
E. Q 802.1X
Which two options are goals of virtualization in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. to provide automation for device deployment
B. to provide resource isolation
C. to automate the provisioning of VLANs
D. to provide integration between devices in a heterogeneous network
E. to provide flexible resource management
Which two options decrease when using a Cisco Unified Fabric Topology as compared to an isolated fabric topology? (Choose two.)
A. the number of cables required to connect to the pod
B. the cost of data storage
C. the cost-per-port of the Fibre Channel switches
D. the power consumption of each pod
E. the number of uplinks required on the Fibre Channel director switches
Which two options are reasons to use IP routing to segment a data center instead of Layer 2 routing? (Choose two.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol
B. simplify design
C. broadcast flooding
D. ease of routing protocol configuration
E. cost
What are two benefits of a service insertion that is mediated through the Cisco APIC instead of the classical Ethernet model? (Choose two.)
A. provides Layer 5 service insertion capability
B. provides Layer 7 service insertion capability
C. provide policies that can manage the network and service appliances
D. can automate the service insertion
E. provides built-in services, such as Cisco ACE Web Application Firewall and ADC
Which three factors affect the virtual machine consolidation ratio when designing a Cisco UCS solution for a virtual desktop infrastructure? (Choose three.)
A. the amount of memory on the blade servers
B. the CPU speed of the blade servers
C. the hypervisor version and the virtual desktop infrastructure software
D. the number of applications on the desktop of each user
E. the remote access protocol type
F. the percentage of user desktops that need remote access
Which components share a physical interface in a VDC deployment?
A. two VDCs for Ethernet traffic
B. storage VDC for FCoE traffic and a VDC for Ethernet traffic
C. two storage VDCs for FCoE traffic
D. interface VLAN and a VDC
Cisco FabricPath is implemented in a data center. You plan to implement anycast HSRP. What is an advantage of anycast HSRP as compared to HSRPv2?
A. Up to four HSRP gateways can forward traffic simultaneously.
B. HSRP gateways use BFD for faster failure detection.
C. An HSRP group can be secured by using MD5.
D. Up to six HSRP gateways can forward traffic simultaneously.
Which two descriptions of stateful packet inspection are true? (Choose two.)
A. provides reliable access control for Layer 3 and Layer 4
B. transparent to network applications
C. relies on only static rules that describe which packets should be allowed or dropped
D. evaluates each packet individually
E. provides reliable access control for Layer 5, Layer 6, and Layer 7
Which option is needed to implement MACsec on a Cisco Nexus 7000 device?
A. Supervisor 2E module
B. Advanced Security license
C. RADIUS server
D. M-Series or F3 line cards
Which two platforms support the FCoE protocol? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 2332TQ Series
B. Cisco MDS 9148S Series
C. Cisco Nexus 7010 Series
D. Cisco MDS 9222i Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2248TP Series
Which four options describe I/O Accelerator? (Choose four.)
A. is topology dependent
B. provides unified acceleration service
C. provides high availability and resiliency
D. provides load balancing
E. is transport agnostic
F. Each IOA engine provides 1-Gbps application throughput.
G. uses TCP
H. does not support multiple paths and PortChannels
You are designing the access layer. Which three pinning configurations for a FEX port are valid? (Choose three.)
A. to one uplink port channel
B. to one physical uplink
C. to four uplink port channels
D. to four physical uplinks
E. to eight uplink port channels
F. to six physical uplinks
Which feature can be used to deploy overlapping IP address spaces within a tenant in the Cisco ACI fabric?
A. private networks
B. external routed networks
C. L3Out
D. bridge domains
Scenario - Review topology and screenshots, and then answer questions that validate your knowledge of Cisco Nexus Switches.Instructions - To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel. Review the Exhibit associated with the question. There are four multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
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Refer to the figure in Exhibit 3. Which item is uniquely required when OTV is configured to use a Unicast Control Pane?
A. ASM
B. Join Interface
C. Adjacency Server
D. Enable Classical Ethernet MAC learning on Edge Interfaces.
DRAG DROP - Drag the solution on the left to the appropriate business requirement on the right, such that the solution solves the requirement. Select and Place:
Refer to the exhibit.Link 1 handles most of the traffic. Which action do you take to load balance traffic evenly between the server and the SAN?
A. Enable src-dst-ox-id load balancing on the MDS switches
B. Enable src-dst-id load balancing on the MDS switches
C. Change the MDS port-channel configuration to source-dest-port
D. Upgrade the bandwidth for the devices connected to the MDS
Which innovation in the Cisco NX-OS Software brings an entirely new Layer 2 data plane by encapsulating the frames entering the device with a header that consists of a routable source and destination address?
A. OTV
B. MPLS
C. Routing
D. RSTP
E. LISP
You are planning the compute capacity to allocate virtualized servers. Which three application characteristics should you use to calculate the required capacity? (Choose three.)
A. the type of database used by the applications
B. the number of server NICs used by the applications
C. the amount of data stored by the applications
D. the advanced CPU features used by the applications
E. the network bandwidth consumed by the applications
F. the memory resources consumed by the application
G. the CPU resources consumed by the application
You use Cisco UCS Central to manage Cisco UCS. Which statement accurately describes how local and global policies are applied?
A. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Director.
B. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Manager, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central.
C. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Director, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central.
D. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Manager.
Which three elements form a 24-bit Fibre Channel address? (Choose three.)
A. switch ID
B. domain ID
C. AS number
D. port ID
E. area ID
F. bridge ID
You are assessing whether the storage system at a data center meets the needs of a customer. Which three storage system parameters must you assess? (Choose three.)
A. the storage capacity used by the applications
B. the number of physical CPU cores installed on the storage systems
C. the number of input/output operations per second used by the applications
D. the memory resources used by the storage systems
E. the SAN bandwidth used by the applications
F. the CPU speed and utilization of the storage systems
When you configure FCIP, which two types of acceleration can you enable to maximize WAN link utilization? (Choose two.)
A. SCSI write
B. link
C. SCSI tape
D. WAN
E. IP
Which two features are supported by VXLAN on the Cisco NX-OS platform? (Choose two.)
A. MP-BGP EVPN
B. DHCP snooping
C. PIM-SM
D. OTV
E. L2TP
Refer to the exhibit. You are evaluating a proposed topology design. Which technology can you recommend to provide high availability for the topology?
A. OTV
B. STP
C. LLDP
D. vPC
You plan to implement a fully integrated firewall design by using a Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series VSS. Which description of the implementation is true?
A. The firewall can be managed independently from the Cisco Catalyst 6500 VSS.
B. A standalone firewall appliance is required.
C. A routing protocol must be configured between the firewall and the Cisco Catalyst 6500 VSS.
D. Firewall services run at the aggregation layer.
Which two options are supported on Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects that use native Fibre Channel connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. iSCSI
B. NFS
C. DAS
D. SAN
E. iFCP
Which three options are features of the Cisco Prime Data Center Network Manager? (Choose three.)
A. SAN inventory
B. security rules and objects views
C. device groups and scoping
D. HTTPS connections to devices
E. authentication services
F. inventory and performance views
Which three actions must you perform to implement Cisco FabricPath on a data center network? (Choose three.)
A. Configure the VLAN in FabricPath mode.
B. Configure the interface to use the STP type of normal.
C. Configure the interfaces in FabricPath mode.
D. Configure the interfaces in trunk mode.
E. Enable the IS-IS feature.
F. Install the FabricPath feature set.
Which two licenses must you have to enable OTV on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch? (Choose two.)
A. Transport Services Package
B. Advanced Services Package
C. MPLS Services Package
D. Enterprise Services Package
E. Enhanced Layer 2 Package
You are designing a data center that will use Cisco Unified Fabric. You must select a switch for the access layer. The switch must support 10-Gbps optical connections. Which type of Cisco Nexus switch must you select?
A. 2248TP
B. 7010
C. 1000V
D. 9000
E. 5548UP
Which two technologies can overcome the link blocking feature that STP implements to ensure a loop-free topology? (Choose two.)
A. vPC
B. ISSU
C. MEC
D. NX-OS HA
E. GLBP
Which three port type configurations does a Fabric Interconnect port that is set to Fibre Channel mode support? (Choose three.)
A. Ethernet uplink
B. Fibre Channel uplink
C. Fibre Channel storage
D. server
E. SPAN source / destination
F. FCoE
G. appliance
Which two functionalities are provided for each context by using multiple context mode on a Cisco ASA firewall? (Choose two.)
A. separate administration
B. separate IPsec VPN configurations
C. separate security policies
D. different dynamic routing protocols
E. separate SSL VPN configurations
Which two tools are included in Cisco Prime DCNM for SAN? (Choose two.)
A. Device Discovery
B. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
C. Cisco DCNM-LAN server
D. Cisco DCNM-SAN Client
E. Cisco Security Manager
Which statement about FCoE is true?
A. FCoE is not supported on any Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders.
B. Not a single FCoE VLAN can map to multiple VSANs.
C. Inter-switch FCoE links can be configured to carry multiple VSANs.
D. FCoE does not support NPV/NPIV mode.
If you are connecting a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect in its default mode to a SAN, what is the operating mode?
A. trunk
B. NPIV mode
C. switching
D. NPV mode
Which two Cisco MDS 9500 line cards support SME? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco MDS 9000 Family Storage Services Module
B. Cisco MDS 9000 Family Multiprotocol Services Module
C. Cisco MDS 9000 Family 8-Gbps Advanced Fibre Channel Switching Module
D. Cisco MDS 9000 Family IP Storage Services Module
E. Cisco MDS 9000 Family Storage Processor Node
F. Cisco MDS 9000 Family Multiservices Module
In a three-tier SAN topology, which network layer should you connect the SAN initiators to?
A. storage edge
B. core
C. host edge
D. distribution
Which two options are benefits of credit-based flow control in a Fibre Channel network? (Choose two.)
A. sends credit to all of the switches in a SAN zone
B. increases the credit limit when the buffer overruns
C. maximizes performance under high loads
D. prevents the loss of frames due to buffer overruns
E. provides automatic buffer scaling under high loads
Which four options are important points within the Cisco UCS design? (Choose four.)
A. preferred MAC address format
B. preferred guest operating systems
C. DNS configuration
D. preferred WWPN format
E. service profile naming conventions
F. preferred backup strategy
G. Cisco IMC IP addressing range
H. ESX host IP addressing
Which statement describes an interconnect link between an FCoE NPV switch and an FCF switch?
A. The interconnect must use port type NP on the FCoE switch.
B. The interconnect must use port type VNP on the FCoE switch.
C. The interconnect must use port type E on the FCoE switch.
D. The FCoE switch must create the tunnel interface and bind to the physical interconnect.
Which three options are benefits of Small Computer System Interface? (Choose three.)
A. SCSI transport protocol that operates over TCP
B. Suitable for data center applications
C. Requires stateful gateway
D. Applicable for smaller environments (small and medium-sized businesses [SMBs])
E. Requires stateless gateway
F. SCSI transport protocol that operates over UDP
Refer to the exhibit. Which four options are Cisco best practices that should be included or implemented in the design for resiliency, deterministic behavior, and fast convergence in case of link failures? (Choose four.)
A. Add additional OSPF adjacency between N7K-1 and N7K-2 via dedicated Layer 3 link.
B. Configure vPC peer-gateway in the vPC domain between N7K-1 and N7K-2.
C. Use point-to-point OSPF adjacencies.
D. Place the primary FHRP role on N7K-1.
E. Configure Layer 3 port channels between all N7K devices.
F. N7K-3 and N7K-4 must be the OSPF designated routers.
G. Place the primary FHRP role on N7K-2.
H. All OSPF adjacencies should be between loopback interfaces.
When deploying VMWare ESXi on Cisco UCS B-Series Servers, what should the iSCSI boot-from-SAN use in the service profile to provide redundancy?
A. two VMKs to connect to the storage
B. two vHBAs to connect to the storage
C. two vmnics to connect to the storage
D. two vNICs to connect to the storage
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