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300-101 Dump Free

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  • 300-101 Dump Free – 50 Practice Questions to Sharpen Your Exam Readiness.
  • Access Full 300-101 Dump Free

300-101 Dump Free – 50 Practice Questions to Sharpen Your Exam Readiness.

Looking for a reliable way to prepare for your 300-101 certification? Our 300-101 Dump Free includes 50 exam-style practice questions designed to reflect real test scenarios—helping you study smarter and pass with confidence.

Using an 300-101 dump free set of questions can give you an edge in your exam prep by helping you:

  • Understand the format and types of questions you’ll face
  • Pinpoint weak areas and focus your study efforts
  • Boost your confidence with realistic question practice

Below, you will find 50 free questions from our 300-101 Dump Free collection. These cover key topics and are structured to simulate the difficulty level of the real exam, making them a valuable tool for review or final prep.

Question 1

Which technology was originally developed for routers to handle fragmentation in the path between end points?

A. PMTUD

B. MSS

C. windowing

D. TCP

E. global synchronization

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

Question 2

Which two causes of latency are true? (Choose two.)

A. split horizon

B. propagation delay

C. serialization delay

D. high bandwidth on a link

E. under-utilization of a link

 


Suggested Answer: BC

 

Question 3

Which three items can you track when you use two time stamps with IP SLAs? (Choose three.)

A. delay

B. jitter

C. packet loss

D. load

E. throughput

F. path

 


Suggested Answer: ABC

 

Question 4

Which protocol can you use to remotely install an IOS on a Cisco switch?

A. SFTP

B. NetFlow

C. FTP

D. SNMP

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

Question 5

Which option is the best for protecting CPU utilization on a device?

A. fragmentation

B. COPP

C. ICMP redirects

D. ICMP unreachable messages

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

Question 6

Which configuration command is used to enable EIGRP unequal-cost path load balancing?

A. maximum-paths

B. distance

C. metric

D. variance

E. default-metric

 


Suggested Answer: D

Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a008009437d.shtml
(See traffic sharing http://networkninja.co.za/page/2/?s=botha&cat=plus-5-results

Question 7

OSPF chooses routes in which order, regardless of route's administrative distance and metric?

A. Intra-Area (O) – Inter-Area (O IA) – External Type 1 (E1) – External Type 2 (E2) – NSSA Type 1 (N1) – NSSA Type 2 (N2)

B. Intra-Area (O) – Inter-Area (O IA) – NSSA Type 1 (N1) – NSSA Type 2 (N2) – External Type 1 (E1) – External Type 2 (E2)

C. Intra-Area (O) – Inter-Area (O IA) – NSSA Type 1 (N1) – External Type 1 (E1) – NSSA Type 2 (N2) – External Type 2 (E2)

D. Intra-Area (O) – NSSA Type 1 (N1) – External Type 1 (E1) – Inter-Area (O IA) – NSSA Type 2 (N2) – External Type 2 (E2)

E. Intra-Area (O) – Inter-Area (O IA) – NSSA Type 1 (N1) – External Type 1 (E1) – NSSA Type 2 (N2) – External Type 2 (E2)

F. NSSA Type 1 (N1) – NSSA Type 2 (N2) – Intra-Area (O) – Inter-Area (O IA) – External Type 1 (E1) – External Type 2 (E2) A

 


Suggested Answer: Explanation

Regardless of a route’s metric or administrative distance, OSPF will choose routes in the following order:
Intra-Area (O)
Inter-Area (O IA)
External Type 1 (E1)
External Type 2 (E2)
NSSA Type 1 (N1)
NSSA Type 2 (N2)

Question 8

Prior to enabling PPPoE in a virtual private dialup network group, which task must be completed?

A. Disable CDP on the interface.

B. Execute the vpdn enable command.

C. Execute the no switchport command.

D. Enable QoS FIFO for PPPoE support.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

Question 9

DRAG DROP -
Drag and drop the DMVPN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:
 Image

 


Suggested Answer:
Correct Answer Image

 

Question 10

In EIGRP, when the IP default-network command is configured on a router, what is generated in the router`s configuration?

A. A static route

B. A directly connected route

C. An EIGRP route

 


Suggested Answer: D. A default route

When you configure the ip default-network command and specify a subnet, a static route (the ip route command) is generated in the router`s configuration; however, the IOS does not display a message to indicate that this has been done. The entry appears as a static route in the routing table of the router where the command is configured. This can be confusing when you want to remove the default network; the configuration must be removed with the no ip route command, not with the no ip default-network command.

Question 11

A network engineer is configuring SNMP on network devices to utilize one-way SNMP notifications. However, the engineer is not concerned with authentication or encryption. Which command satisfies the requirements of this scenario?

A. router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 traps version 2c CISCORO

B. router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 informs version 2c CISCORO

C. router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 traps version 3 auth CISCORO

 


Suggested Answer: D. router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 informs version 3 auth CISCORO

Most network admins and engineers are familiar with SNMPv2c which has become the dominant SNMP version of the past decade. It`s simple to configure on both the router/switch-side and just as easy on the network monitoring server. The problem of course is that the SNMP statistical payload is not encrypted and authentication is passed in cleartext. Most companies have decided that the information being transmitted isn`t valuable enough to be worth the extra effort in upgrading to SNMPv3, but I would suggest otherwise. Like IPv4 to IPv6, there are some major changes under the hood. SNMP version 2 uses community strings
(think cleartext passwords, no encryption) to authenticate polling and trap delivery. SNMP version 3 moves away from the community string approach in favor of user- based authentication and view-based access control. The users are not actual local user accounts, rather they are simply a means to determine who can authenticate to the device. The view is used to define what the user account may access on the IOS device. Finally, each user is added to a group, which determines the access policy for its users. Users, groups, views. Reference: http://www.ccnpguide.com/snmp-version-3/

Question 12

If you want to migrate an IS-IS network to another routing protocol with a lower AD, which two protocols do you consider? (Choose two.)

A. RIP

B. UDP

C. TCP/IP

D. EIGRP

E. OSPF

F. internal BGP

 


Suggested Answer: DE

Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Administrative_distance

Question 13

Image
Based on the configuration information shown above, which of the following are true? (Choose two)

A. will redistribute only clasfull routes

B. routes will be redistributed as E2

C. routes will be redistributed as N2

D. will redistribute all eigrp routes

 


Suggested Answer: AB

 

Question 14

Which feature can automatically assign IP addresses in a PPPoE environment?

A. DHCP

B. BOOTP

C. PPP

D. APIPA

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

Question 15

Which ospf area prevent LSA type 4, LSA type 5? (Choose two.)

A. Not so stubby

B. Total stubby

C. Stubby area BC

 


Suggested Answer: Explanation

 

Question 16

When an EIGRP topology change is detected, what is the correct order of events when there is a FS?

A. The neighbor adjacency is deleted. The feasible route is used. DUAL is notified. Remove all topology entries learned from that neighbor.

B. DUAL is notified. Remove all topology entries learned from that neighbor. The neighbor adjacency is deleted. Routes enter the Active state and the feasible route is used.

C. The neighbor adjacency is deleted. Routes enter the Active state and the feasible route is used. DUAL is notified. Remove all topology entries learned from that neighbor.

D. DUAL is notified. The neighbor adjacency is deleted. Remove all topology entries learned from that neighbor.

 


Suggested Answer: The feasible route is used.

If a packet is not received before the expiration of the hold time, the neighbor adjacency is deleted, and all topology table entries learned from that neighbor are removed, as if the neighbor had sent an update stating that all the routes are unreachable. If the neighbor is a successor for any destination networks, those networks are removed from the routing table, and alternative paths, if available, are computed. This lets the routes quickly reconverge if an alternative feasible route is available.

Question 17

What does the following access list, which is applied on the external interface FastEthernet 1/0 of the perimeter router, accomplish? router(config)#access-list 101 deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any log router (config)#access-list 101 deny ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any log router (config)
#access-list 101 deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any log router (config)#access-list 101 permit ip any any router (config)#interface fastEthernet 1/0 router (config-if)#ip access-group 101 in

A. It prevents incoming traffic from IP address ranges 10.0.0.0-10.0.0.255, 172.16.0.0- 172.31.255.255, 192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255 and logs any intrusion attempts.

B. It prevents the internal network from being used in spoofed denial of service attacks and logs any exit to the Internet.

C. It filters incoming traffic from private addresses in order to prevent spoofing and logs any intrusion attempts.

 


Suggested Answer: D. It prevents private internal addresses to be accessed directly from outside.

The private IP address ranges defined in RFC 1918 are as follows:
10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255
172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255
192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255
These IP addresses should never be allowed from external networks into a corporate network as they would only be able to reach the network from the outside via routing problems or if the IP addresses were spoofed. This ACL is used to prevent all packets with a spoofed reserved private source IP address to enter the network. The log keyword also enables logging of this intrusion attempt.

Question 18

When an OSPF design is planned, which implementation can help a router not have memory resource issues?

A. Have a backbone area (area 0) with 40 routers and use default routes to reach external destinations.

B. Have a backbone area (area 0) with 4 routers and 30,000 external routes injected into OSPF.

C. Have less OSPF areas to reduce the need for interarea route summarizations.

D. Have multiple OSPF processes on each OSPF router. Example, router ospf 1, router ospf 2.

 


Suggested Answer: A

Memory issues usually come up when too many external routes are injected in the OSPF domain. A backbone area with 40 routers and a default route to the outside world would have less memory issues compared with a backbone area with 4 routers and 33,000 external routes being injected into OSPF. Router memory could also be conserved by using a good OSPF design. Summarization at the area border routers and use of stub areas could further minimize the number of routes exchanged.
The total memory used by OSPF is the sum of the memory used in the routing table ( show ip route summary ) and the memory used in the LSDB. The following numbers are a “rule of thumb” estimate. Each entry in the routing table will consume between approximately 200 and 280 bytes plus 44 bytes per extra path. Each
LSA will consume a 100 byte overhead plus the size of the actual LSA, possibly another 60 to 100 bytes (For router links, this depends on the number of interfaces on the router). These amounts should be added to memory already used by other processes and by the IOS itself.
If you really want to know the exact number, you can do a show memory with and without OSPF being turned on. The difference in the processor memory used would be the answer.

Question 19

Which condition must be met before a router can send an ICMP redirect message?

A. The IP address of the sending device must be in the same subnet as the next hop.

B. The ingress and egress interfaces on the device must be different.

C. The datagram must be source-routed.

D. ICMP echo requests must have been disabled globally.

 


Suggested Answer: A

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/routing-information-protocol-rip/13714-43.html

Question 20

You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
 Image
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What type of route filtering is occurring on R6

A. Distribute-list using an ACL

B. Distribute-list using a prefix-list

C. Distribute-list using a route-map

D. An ACL using a distance of 255

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

Question 21

PPPoE is composed of which two phases?

A. Active Authentication Phase and PPP Session Phase

B. Passive Discovery Phase and PPP Session Phase

C. Active Authorization Phase and PPP Session Phase

D. Active Discovery Phase and PPP Session Phase

 


Suggested Answer: D

PPPoE is composed of two main phases:
✑ Active Discovery Phase “” In this phase, the PPPoE client locates a PPPoE server, called an access concentrator. During this phase, a Session ID is assigned and the PPPoE layer is established.
✑ PPP Session Phase “” In this phase, PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a
Layer 2 encapsulation method, allowing data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa92/configuration/vpn/asa-vpn-cli/vpn-pppoe.html

Question 22

You are troubleshooting an OSPF problem where external routes are not showing up in the OSPF database. Which two options are valid checks that should be performed first to verify proper OSPF operation? (Choose two.)

A. Are the ASBRs trying to redistribute the external routes into a totally stubby area?

B. Are the ABRs configured with stubby areas?

C. Is the subnets keyword being used with the redistribution command?

D. Is backbone area (area 0) contiguous?

E. Is the CPU utilization of the routers high?

 


Suggested Answer: AC

Explanation –
A totally stubby stubby area cannot have an ASBR so it will discard this type of LSA (LSA Type 5) -> A is a valid check.
Each stubby area needs an ABR to communicate with other areas so it is normal -> B is not a valid check.
When pulling routes into OSPF, we need to use the keyword subnets so that subnets will be redistributed too. For example, if we redistribute these EIGRP routes into OSPF:
+ 10.0.0.0/8
+ 10.10.0.0/16
+ 10.10.1.0/24
without the keyword subnets
router ospf 1
redistribute eigrp 1
Then only 10.0.0.0/8 network will be redistributed because other routes are not classful routes, they are subnets. To redistribute subnets we must use the keyword subnets router ospf 1 redistribute eigrp 1 subnets
-> C is a valid check.
We don`t need to care if area 0 is contiguous or not -> D is not a valid check. CPU utilization cannot be the cause for this problem -> E is not a valid check.

Question 23

What following parameters for the EIGRP authentication need to match in order for EIGRP neighbors to establish a neighbor relationship?

A. Autonomous System number.

B. K-Values

C. If authentication is used both: the key number, the password, and the date/time.

D. The neighbors must be on common subnet (all IGPs follow this rule).

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

Question 24

Scenario -
You have been asked to evaluate an OSPF network setup in a test lab and to answer questions a customer has about its operation. The customer has disabled your access to the show running-config command.
Instructions -
- Enter IOS commands on the device to verify network operation and answer for multiple-choice questions.
- THIS TASK DOES NOT REQUIRE DEVICE CONFIGURATION.
- Click on the icon or the lab at the bottom of the screen to gain access to the console for each device.
- No console or enable passwords are required.
- To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
- There are four multiple-choice questions with this task. Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button.
 Image
 Image
 Image
 Image
 Image
 Image
 Image
Areas of Router 5 and 6 are not normal areas. Inspect their routing tables and determine which statement is true.

A. R5’s Loopback and R6’s Loopback are both present in R5’s Routing table

B. R5’s Loopback and R6’s Loopback are both present in R6’s Routing table

C. Only R5’s loopback is present in R5’s Routing table

D. Only R6’s loopback is present in R5’s Routing table

E. Only R5’s loopback is present in R6’s Routing table

 


Suggested Answer: A

Here are the routing tables of R5 and R6:
<img src=”https://www.examtopics.com/assets/media/exam-media/02670/0009800001.png” alt=”Reference Image” />
<img src=”https://www.examtopics.com/assets/media/exam-media/02670/0009900001.jpg” alt=”Reference Image” />
Here we see R5’s loopbacks in the routing table shown as connected, and the 6.6.6.6 loopback IP address of R6 is also seen as an OSPF route in R5’s routing table.

Question 25

Which two statements about Frame Relay Point-to-Point connections are true? (Choose two.)

A. Changing a point-to-point sub interface to a different type requires the device to be reloaded.

B. They use two DLCIs to communicate with multiple endpoints over the Frame Relay cloud.

C. The device can establish a point-to-point connection to the cloud without a DLCI.

D. They can operate normally without a DLCI map.

E. Each physical interface that extends to the Frame Relay cloud can support a single SVC.

 


Suggested Answer: AB

 

Question 26

An engineer is using a network sniffer to troubleshoot DHCPv6 between a router and hosts on the LAN with the following configuration: interface Ethernet0 ipv6 dhcp server DHCPSERVERPOOL rapid-commit
!
Which two DHCP messages will appear in the sniffer logs? (Choose two.)

A. reply

B. request

C. advertise

D. Acknowledge

E. solicit

F. accept

 


Suggested Answer: AE

The DHCPv6 client can obtain configuration parameters from a server either through a rapid two-message exchange (solicit, reply) or through a four-message exchange (solicit, advertise, request, and reply). By default, the four-message exchange is used. When the rapid-commit option is enabled by both the client and the server, the two-message exchange is used.
References:

Question 27

You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
 Image
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Which key chain is being used for authentication of EIGRP adjacency between R4 and R2?

A. CISCO

B. EIGRP

C. key

 


Suggested Answer: D. MD5

R4 and R2 configs are as shown below:
<img src=”https://www.examtopics.com/assets/media/exam-media/02670/n18846800007.jpg” alt=”Reference Image” />
Clearly we see the actual key chain is named CISCO.

Question 28

Which two statements about VRRP object tracking are true? (Choose two.)

A. VRRP supports only interface tracking.

B. A VRRP group can track only one object at a time.

C. The priority of a VRRP device can change in accordance with the up or down status of a VRRP object.

D. VRRP can track the status of interfaces and routes.

E. The VRRP interface priority must be manually configured by the administrator.

 


Suggested Answer: CD

 

Question 29

Which command do you enter to display log messages with a timestamp that includes the length of time since the device was last rebooted?

A. Service timestamps log uptime

B. Logging facility 20

C. Service timestamps debugging localtime msec

D. Logging console errors

E. Logging monitor 7

F. Service timestamps log datetime msec

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

Question 30

Which two LSA types were introduced to support OSPF for IPv6? (Choose two.)

A. type 9

B. type 5

C. type 10

D. type 8

E. type 7 AD

 


Suggested Answer: Explanation

 

Question 31

Which three statements about the EIGRP routing protocol are true? (Choose three)

A. EIGRP sends periodic hello packets to the multicast IP address 224.0.0.10.

B. EIGRP will not form a neighbor relationship with another peer when their AS number and K values, either or both are mismatched.

C. EIGRP will form a neighbor relationship with another peer even when their K values are mismatched.

D. EIGRP supports five generic packet types, including Hello, Update, Query, Reply, and ACK packets.

 


Suggested Answer: ABD

Reference: http://www.ietf.org/id/draft-savage-eigrp-00.txt
(see eigrp packets) http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=27839

Question 32

Which condition must be satisfied before an EIGRP neighbor can be considered a feasible successor?

A. The neighbor’s advertised distance must be less than or equal to the feasible distance of the current successor.

B. The neighbor’s advertised distance must be less than the feasible distance of the current successor.

C. The neighbor’s advertised distance must be greater than the feasible distance of the current successor.

D. The neighbor’s advertised distance must be equal to the feasible distance of the current successor.

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

Question 33

How to set up IP SLA to monitor Bandwidth between the certain limits?

A. Timer

B. Frequency

C. Threshold

D. Queue-limit

 


Suggested Answer: C

 

Question 34

Which two phases of DMVPN allow to spoke sites to create dynamic tunnels to one another? (Choose two.)

A. Phase1

B. Phase 2

C. Phase 3

D. Phase 4

E. Phase 5

 


Suggested Answer: BC

 

Question 35

Which two BGP neighbor states are valid? (Choose two.)

A. Established

B. Active

C. Stuck in active

D. 2-WAY

E. Unknown

F. DROTHER

 


Suggested Answer: AB

<img src=”https://www.examtopics.com/assets/media/exam-media/02670/0029000001.png” alt=”Reference Image” />

Question 36

You have a router has some interface configured with 10Gb interface and giga interface.
Which command you use to optimize higher BW?
A.
 Image
B.
 Image
C.
 Image
D.
 Image

 


Suggested Answer: A

 

Question 37

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address 10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2.
 Image
Given the debug output on RouterA, which two statements are true?

A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.

B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.

C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.

D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.

E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.

F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.

 


Suggested Answer: DF

If the k-value mismatch occurs, Router A will never form an adjacency with Router B since it is one of the basic requirements of adjacency. If you see the exhibit,
Router A received HELLO packet with a mismatched metric.

Question 38

Refer to the exhibit.
 Image
Which three commands should be used on router B1 to redistribute the EIGRP AS 10 routes into RIP? (Choose three.)

A. router rip

B. router eigrp 10

C. redistribute eigrp 10

D. redistribute rip

E. default-metric 10000 100 255 1 1500

F. default-metric 5

 


Suggested Answer: ACF

 

Question 39

Which condition can cause unicast reverse path forwarding to fail?

A. PortFast security violation

B. split horizon

C. asymmetric routing

D. STP convergence C

 


Suggested Answer: Explanation

Unicast RPF configured in strict mode may drop legitimate traffic that is received on an interface that was not the router’s choice for sending return traffic.
Dropping this legitimate traffic could occur when asymmetric routing paths are present in the network. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/about/security-center/unicast-reverse-path-forwarding.html

Question 40

You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
 Image
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What percent of R1`s interfaces bandwidth is EIGRP allowed to use?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 30

D. 40

 


Suggested Answer: B

The relevant configuration of R1 is shown below:
<img src=”https://www.examtopics.com/assets/media/exam-media/02670/n18825300003.jpg” alt=”Reference Image” />
ip bandwidth-percent eigrp 1 20
1 = the EIGRP AS
20 = 20% of the bandwidth

Question 41

Refer to the Exhibit.
 Image
Routers in the Diagram are configured with EIGRP. If RTB and RTC fail, which action will RTA take with respect to the HQ network?

A. RTA will automatically route packets via RTD to the HQ network.

B. RTA will place the route via RTD into the hold down state.

C. RTA will go into the active state for all routers.

D. RTA will go into the active state for the route to HQ network.

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

Question 42

Which of the following are characteristics of TACACS+? (Choose two.)

A. Uses UDP

B. Encrypts an entire packet

C. Offers robust accounting

D. Cisco-proprietary

 


Suggested Answer: BD

CHARACTERISTICS O TACACS+
1-TACACS+ encrypts the entire body of the packet
2- TACACS+ uses TCP
3-TACACS+ uses the AAA architecture, which separates AAA 4-TACACS+ offers multiprotocol support.
5-TACACS+ is Cisco proprietary protocol
6-TACACS+ is a heavy-weight protocol consuming more resources 7-TACACS+ uses TCP port 8-Mainly used for Device Administration
9-TACACS+ supports 15 privilege levels
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/remote-authentication-dial-user-service-radius/13838-10.html

Question 43

Which criterion does BGP evaluate first when determining the best path?

A. MED value

B. neighbor address

C. local preference value

D. weight

 


Suggested Answer: D

 

Question 44

Refer to the exhibit.
 Image
BigBids Incorporated is a worldwide auction provider. The network uses EIGRP as its routing protocol throughout the corporation. The network administrator does not understand the convergence of EIGRP. Using the output of the show ip eigrp topology all-links command, answer the administrator's question.
Which three networks is the router at 172.17.10.2 directly connected to? (Choose three)

A. 172.17.0.0/30

B. 172.17.1.0/24

C. 172.17.2.0/24

D. 172.17.3.0/25

E. 172.17.3.128/25

 


Suggested Answer: F. 172.17.10.0/24

<img src=”https://www.examtopics.com/assets/media/exam-media/02670/n18854700000.jpg” alt=”Reference Image” />
First, we should notice about the entry in the orange box, it shows that the network 172.17.10.0/24 is directly connected with this router and has a FD of 28160. So we can guess the networks that directly connected with router at 172.17.10.2 will be shown with an AD of 28160. From that, we find out 3 networks which are directly connected to the router at 172.17.10.2 (they are green underlined). The network 172.17.10.0/24 is surely directly connected to the router at 172.17.10.2 (in fact it is the network that links the router at 172.17.10.2 with Core1 router).

Question 45

An engineer has added the following configuration snippet to an implementation planning document. The configuration will be added to Router R1, whose Fa0/0 interface connects to a LAN to which Routers R2 and R3 also connect. R2 and R3 are already EIGRP neighbors with each other. Assuming the snippet shows all commands on R1 related to EIGRP authentication, which answer lists an appropriate comment to be made during the implementation plan peer review? key chain fred key 3 key-string whehew interface fa0/0 ip authentication key-chain eigrp 9 fred

A. The configuration is missing one authentication-related configuration command.

B. The configuration is missing two authentication-related configuration commands.

C. Authentication type 9 is not supported; type 5 should be used insteaD.

D. The key numbers must begin with key 1, so change the key 3 command to key 1.

 


Suggested Answer: A

The configuration requires the ip authentication mode eigrp asn md5 command, which is currently missing. This command enables MD5-style authentication, rather than the default of no authentication. Adding this one command completes the configuration. Any valid key numbers can be used. Also, the 9 in the ip authentication key-chain eigrp 9 fred command refers to the EIGRP ASN, not an authentication type.

Question 46

What is the international standard for transmitting data over a cable system?

A. PPPoE

B. DOCSIS

C. CMTS

D. AAL5

 


Suggested Answer: B

 

Question 47

Refer to the exhibit.
 Image
Router RTA is the hub router for routers RTB and RTC. The Frame Relay network is configured with EIGRP, and the entire network is in autonomous system 1.
However, router RTB and RTC are not receiving each other's routes. What is the solution?

A. Configure the auto summary command under router eigrp 1 on router RTA.

B. Issue the no ip split horizon command on router RTA.

C. Configure subinterfaces on the spoke routers and assign different IP address subnets for each subinterface.

D. Check and change the access lists on router RTA.

E. Issue the no ip split horizon eigrp 1 command on router RTA.

F. Configure a distribute list on router RTA that allows it to advertise all routes to the spoke routers.

 


Suggested Answer: E

Split horizon controls the sending of EIGRP update and query packets. When split horizon is enabled on an interface, these packets are not sent for destinations for which this interface is the next hop. This reduces the possibility of routing loops.
By default, split horizon is enabled on all interfaces. Split horizon blocks route information from being advertised by a router out of any interface from which that information originated. This behavior usually optimizes communications among multiple routing devices, particularly when links are broken. However, with nonbroadcast networks (such as Frame Relay and SMDS), situations can arise for which this behavior is less than ideal. For these situations, you may want to disable split horizon. In this example, routes received by RTB and RTC are not being sent back out the same serial interface on RTA, so they are not receiving each other`s routes. Disabling Split horizons on interface S0/0 on RTA will fix this issue.

Question 48

Study the exhibit carefully.
 Image
Router R1 is connected to networks 172.16.1.0 /26 and 172.16.1.64 /27. Based on the partial output in the exhibit, which description is correct?

A. Router R1 should be reconfigured with an ACL instead of an ip prefix-list command.

B. Router R1 will advertise both routes.

C. Router R1 will deny the 172.16.1.0/27 route while permitting the 172.16.1.0/26 route to be advertised.

 


Suggested Answer: D. Router R1 will deny the 172.16.1.0/26 route while permitting the 172.16.1.64/27 route to be advertised.

Explanation –
Prefix lists are configured with permit or deny keywords to either permit or deny the prefix based on the matching condition. A prefix list consists of an IP address and a bit mask. The IP address can be a classful network, a subnet, or a single host route. The bit mask is entered as a number from 1 to 32.
Prefix lists are configured to match an exact prefix length or a prefix range. The ge and le keywords are used to specify a range of the prefix lengths to match, providing more flexible configuration than can be configured with just the network/length argument. The prefix list is processed using an exact match when neither ge nor le keyword is entered.
Therefore in this case the exact 172.16.1.0/26 network is permitted while other networks are denied.
(Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_3t/ip_route/command/reference/ip2_i2gt.html)

Question 49

Redistributing BGP into OSPF what statement is correct?
route-map deny 10
match ip address 10
route-map permit 20
access-list 10 permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255

A. 172.16.0.0/24 will NOT be redistributed into OSPF.

B. 172.16.0.0/24 will be redistributed into OSPF.

C. Routes permitted by ACL 10 will be redistributed.

D. All routes will be filtered. A

 


Suggested Answer: Explanation

 

Question 50

You have been asked to evaluate how EIGRP is functioning in a customer network.
 Image
 Image
 Image
 Image
 Image
 Image
 Image
What type of route filtering is occurring on R6

A. Distribute-list using an ACL

B. Distribute-list using a prefix-list

C. Distribute-list using a route-map

D. An ACL using a distance of 255

 


Suggested Answer: A

The configuration on R6 is as follows:
<img src=”https://www.examtopics.com/assets/media/exam-media/02670/n18825200003.png” alt=”Reference Image” />
This is a standard distribute list using access list number 1.

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