The Linux command used to make binary copies of computer media and as a disk imaging tool if given a raw disk device as its input is:

A. “dd” command

B. “netstat” command

C. “nslookup” command

D. “find” command

Which of the following incidents are reported under CAT -5 federal agency category?

A. Exercise/ Network Defense Testing

B. Malicious code

C. Scans/ probes/ Attempted Access

D. Denial of Service DoS

The goal of incident response is to handle the incident in a way that minimizes damage and reduces recovery time and cost. Which of the following does NOT constitute a goal of incident response?

A. Dealing with human resources department and various employee conflict behaviors.

B. Using information gathered during incident handling to prepare for handling future incidents in a better way and to provide stronger protection for systems and data.

C. Helping personal to recover quickly and efficiently from security incidents, minimizing loss or theft and disruption of services.

D. Dealing properly with legal issues that may arise during incidents.

Based on the some statistics; what is the typical number one top incident?

A. Phishing

B. Policy violation

C. Un-authorized access

D. Malware

A threat source does not present a risk if NO vulnerability that can be exercised for a particular threat source. Identify the step in which different threat sources are defined:
 

A. Identification Vulnerabilities

B. Control analysis

C. Threat identification

D. System characterization

Which of the following is an appropriate flow of the incident recovery steps?

A. System Operation-System Restoration-System Validation-System Monitoring

B. System Validation-System Operation-System Restoration-System Monitoring

C. System Restoration-System Monitoring-System Validation-System Operations

D. System Restoration-System Validation-System Operations-System Monitoring

The person who offers his formal opinion as a testimony about a computer crime incident in the court of law is known as:

A. Expert Witness

B. Incident Analyzer

C. Incident Responder

D. Evidence Documenter

Incidents such as DDoS that should be handled immediately may be considered as:

A. Level One incident

B. Level Two incident

C. Level Three incident

D. Level Four incident

A security policy will take the form of a document or a collection of documents, depending on the situation or usage. It can become a point of reference in case a violation occurs that results in dismissal or other penalty. Which of the following is NOT true for a good security policy?

A. It must be enforceable with security tools where appropriate and with sanctions where actual prevention is not technically feasible

B. It must be approved by court of law after verifications of the stated terms and facts

C. It must be implemented through system administration procedures, publishing of acceptable use guide lines or other appropriate methods

D. It must clearly define the areas of responsibilities of the users, administrators and management

Except for some common roles, the roles in an IRT are distinct for every organization. Which among the following is the role played by the Incident Coordinator of an IRT?

A. Links the appropriate technology to the incident to ensure that the foundation’s offices are returned to normal operations as quickly as possible

B. Links the groups that are affected by the incidents, such as legal, human resources, different business areas and management

C. Applies the appropriate technology and tries to eradicate and recover from the incident

D. Focuses on the incident and handles it from management and technical point of view

One of the main objectives of incident management is to prevent incidents and attacks by tightening the physical security of the system or infrastructure. According to CERT's incident management process, which stage focuses on implementing infrastructure improvements resulting from postmortem reviews or other process improvement mechanisms?

A. Protection

B. Preparation

C. Detection

D. Triage

A distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is a more common type of DoS Attack, where a single system is targeted by a large number of infected machines over the Internet. In a DDoS attack, attackers first infect multiple systems which are known as:

A. Trojans

B. Zombies

C. Spyware

D. Worms

An adversary attacks the information resources to gain undue advantage is called:

A. Defensive Information Warfare

B. Offensive Information Warfare

C. Electronic Warfare

D. Conventional Warfare

Which among the following CERTs is an Internet provider to higher education institutions and various other research institutions in the Netherlands and deals with all cases related to computer security incidents in which a customer is involved either as a victim or as a suspect?

A. NET-CERT

B. DFN-CERT

C. Funet CERT

D. SURFnet-CERT

Risk is defined as the probability of the occurrence of an incident. Risk formulation generally begins with the likeliness of an event's occurrence, the harm it may cause and is usually denoted as Risk = ∑(events)X(Probability of occurrence)X?

A. Magnitude

B. Probability

C. Consequences

D. Significance

The largest number of cyber-attacks are conducted by:

A. Insiders

B. Outsiders

C. Business partners

D. Suppliers

An estimation of the expected losses after an incident helps organization in prioritizing and formulating their incident response. The cost of an incident can be categorized as a tangible and intangible cost. Identify the tangible cost associated with virus outbreak?

A. Loss of goodwill

B. Damage to corporate reputation

C. Psychological damage

D. Lost productivity damage

Adam calculated the total cost of a control to protect 10,000 $ worth of data as 20,000 $. What do you advise Adam to do?

A. Apply the control

B. Not to apply the control

C. Use qualitative risk assessment

D. Use semi-qualitative risk assessment instead

Digital evidence plays a major role in prosecuting cyber criminals. John is a cyber-crime investigator, is asked to investigate a child pornography case. The personal computer of the criminal in question was confiscated by the county police. Which of the following evidence will lead John in his investigation?

A. SAM file

B. Web serve log

C. Routing table list

D. Web browser history

Contingency planning enables organizations to develop and maintain effective methods to handle emergencies. Every organization will have its own specific requirements that the planning should address. There are five major components of the IT contingency plan, namely supporting information, notification activation, recovery and reconstitution and plan appendices. What is the main purpose of the reconstitution plan?

A. To restore the original site, tests systems to prevent the incident and terminates operations

B. To define the notification procedures, damage assessments and offers the plan activation

C. To provide the introduction and detailed concept of the contingency plan

D. To provide a sequence of recovery activities with the help of recovery procedures

Incident handling and response steps help you to detect, identify, respond and manage an incident. Which of the following steps focus on limiting the scope and extent of an incident?

A. Eradication

B. Containment

C. Identification

D. Data collection

Identify the malicious program that is masked as a genuine harmless program and gives the attacker unrestricted access to the user's information and system.
These programs may unleash dangerous programs that may erase the unsuspecting user's disk and send the victim's credit card numbers and passwords to a stranger.

A. Cookie tracker

B. Worm

C. Trojan

D. Virus

Ensuring the integrity, confidentiality and availability of electronic protected health information of a patient is known as:

A. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

B. Health Insurance Portability and Privacy Act

C. Social Security Act

D. Sarbanes-Oxley Act

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of flow of the stages in an incident response:

A. Containment – Identification – Preparation – Recovery – Follow-up – Eradication

B. Preparation – Identification – Containment – Eradication – Recovery – Follow-up

C. Eradication – Containment – Identification – Preparation – Recovery – Follow-up

D. Identification – Preparation – Containment – Recovery – Follow-up – Eradication

Risk management consists of three processes, risk assessment, mitigation and evaluation. Risk assessment determines the extent of the potential threat and the risk associated with an IT system through its SDLC. How many primary steps does NIST's risk assessment methodology involve?

A. Twelve

B. Four

C. Six

D. Nine

An access control policy authorized a group of users to perform a set of actions on a set of resources. Access to resources is based on necessity and if a particular job role requires the use of those resources. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental element of access control policy

A. Action group: group of actions performed by the users on resources

B. Development group: group of persons who develop the policy

C. Resource group: resources controlled by the policy

D. Access group: group of users to which the policy applies

ADAM, an employee from a multinational company, uses his company's accounts to send e-mails to a third party with their spoofed mail address. How can you categorize this type of account?

A. Inappropriate usage incident

B. Unauthorized access incident

C. Network intrusion incident

D. Denial of Service incident

The type of relationship between CSIRT and its constituency have an impact on the services provided by the CSIRT. Identify the level of the authority that enables members of CSIRT to undertake any necessary actions on behalf of their constituency?

A. Full-level authority

B. Mid-level authority

C. Half-level authority

D. Shared-level authority

Identify the network security incident where intended authorized users are prevented from using system, network, or applications by flooding the network with high volume of traffic that consumes all existing network resources.

A. URL Manipulation

B. XSS Attack

C. SQL Injection

D. Denial of Service Attack

In which of the steps of NIST's risk assessment methodology are the boundary of the IT system, along with the resources and the information that constitute the system identified?

A. Likelihood Determination

B. Control recommendation

C. System characterization

D. Control analysis

In a qualitative risk analysis, risk is calculated in terms of:

A. (Attack Success + Criticality ) “”(Countermeasures)

B. Asset criticality assessment “” (Risks and Associated Risk Levels)

C. Probability of Loss X Loss

D. (Countermeasures + Magnitude of Impact) “” (Reports from prior risk assessments)

If the loss anticipated is greater than the agreed upon threshold; the organization will:

A. Accept the risk

B. Mitigate the risk

C. Accept the risk but after management approval

D. Do nothing

An organization faced an information security incident where a disgruntled employee passed sensitive access control information to a competitor. The organization's incident response manager, upon investigation, found that the incident must be handled within a few hours on the same day to maintain business continuity and market competitiveness. How would you categorize such information security incident?

A. High level incident

B. Middle level incident

C. Ultra-High level incident

D. Low level incident

Computer viruses are malicious software programs that infect computers and corrupt or delete the data on them. Identify the virus type that specifically infects
Microsoft Word files?

A. Micro Virus

B. File Infector

C. Macro Virus

D. Boot Sector virus

Incident handling and response steps help you to detect, identify, respond and manage an incident. Which of the following helps in recognizing and separating the infected hosts from the information system?

A. Configuring firewall to default settings

B. Inspecting the process running on the system

C. Browsing particular government websites

D. Sending mails to only group of friends

An assault on system security that is derived from an intelligent threat is called:

A. Threat Agent

B. Vulnerability

C. Attack

D. Risk

Which of the following terms may be defined as "a measure of possible inability to achieve a goal, objective, or target within a defined security, cost plan and technical limitations that adversely affects the organization's operation and revenues?

A. Risk

B. Vulnerability

C. Threat

D. Incident Response

Bit stream image copy of the digital evidence must be performed in order to:

A. Prevent alteration to the original disk

B. Copy the FAT table

C. Copy all disk sectors including slack space

D. All the above

The role that applies appropriate technology and tries to eradicate and recover from the incident is known as:

A. Incident Manager

B. Incident Analyst

C. Incident Handler

D. Incident coordinator

A payroll system has a vulnerability that cannot be exploited by current technology. Which of the following is correct about this scenario:

A. The risk must be urgently mitigated

B. The risk must be transferred immediately

C. The risk is not present at this time

D. The risk is accepted

A risk mitigation strategy determines the circumstances under which an action has to be taken to minimize and overcome risks. Identify the risk mitigation strategy that focuses on minimizing the probability of risk and losses by searching for vulnerabilities in the system and appropriate controls:

A. Risk Assumption

B. Research and acknowledgment

C. Risk limitation

D. Risk absorption

A Malicious code attack using emails is considered as:

A. Malware based attack

B. Email attack

C. Inappropriate usage incident

D. Multiple component attack

The free, open source, TCP/IP protocol analyzer, sniffer and packet capturing utility standard across many industries and educational institutions is known as:

A. Snort

B. Wireshark

C. Cain & Able

D. nmap

The service organization that provides 24x7 computer security incident response services to any user, company, government agency, or organization is known as:

A. Computer Security Incident Response Team CSIRT

B. Security Operations Center SOC

C. Digital Forensics Examiner

D. Vulnerability Assessor

Which policy recommends controls for securing and tracking organizational resources:

A. Access control policy

B. Administrative security policy

C. Acceptable use policy

D. Asset control policy

The correct sequence of Incident Response and Handling is:

A. Incident Identification, recording, initial response, communication and containment

B. Incident Identification, initial response, communication, recording and containment

C. Incident Identification, communication, recording, initial response and containment

D. Incident Identification, recording, initial response, containment and communication

Which of the following service(s) is provided by the CSIRT:

A. Vulnerability handling

B. Technology watch

C. Development of security tools

D. All the above

The insider risk matrix consists of technical literacy and business process knowledge vectors. Considering the matrix, one can conclude that:

A. If the insider’s technical literacy is low and process knowledge is high, the risk posed by the threat will be insignificant.

B. If the insider’s technical literacy and process knowledge are high, the risk posed by the threat will be insignificant.

C. If the insider’s technical literacy is high and process knowledge is low, the risk posed by the threat will be high.

D. If the insider’s technical literacy and process knowledge are high, the risk posed by the threat will be high.

Preventing the incident from spreading and limiting the scope of the incident is known as:

A. Incident Eradication

B. Incident Protection

C. Incident Containment

D. Incident Classification

A malware code that infects computer files, corrupts or deletes the data in them and requires a host file to propagate is called:

A. Trojan

B. Worm

C. Virus

D. RootKit